TAN (FORMERLY LUKE MINH VU) -v- RACING AND WAGERING WESTERN AUSTRALIA [2026] WASC 204
[2026] WASC 204
Page 1
JURISDICTION : SUPREME COURT OF WESTERN AUSTRALIA
IN CIVIL
CITATION : TAN (FORMERLY LUKE MINH VU) -v- RACING
AND WAGERING WESTERN AUSTRALIA [2026]
WASC 204
CORAM : HOWARD J
HEARD : 8 MAY 2026 AND LAST SUBMISSIONS FILED
26 MAY 2026
DELIVERED : 29 MAY 2026
FILE NO/S : CIV 1327 of 2026
BETWEEN : THIEN TAN (FORMERLY LUKE MINH VU)
Applicant
AND
RACING AND WAGERING WESTERN
AUSTRALIA
Respondent
Catchwords:
Administrative Law - Where the applicant was a betting customer of the
respondent - Where the respondent decided to terminate the wagering services it
had provided - Application for judicial review - Preliminary objection taken by
the respondent -Whether the respondent's decision was an exercise of a power
derived from the Anti-Money Laundering and Counter Terrorism Financing Act
2006 (Cth) such that it was open to judicial review for jurisdictional error -
Whether the Court has jurisdiction to review decision - Whether the Application
could not succeed at a final hearing - Whether the Application should be
determined summarily - Finding that review application could not succeed -
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Respondent's objection upheld and review application summarily determined -
Where respondent had filed a conditional appearance under O 12 r 6 of the Rules
of the Supreme Court 1971 (WA) - Whether that was an apposite procedure to
have been adopted to agitate the respondent's objection
Legislation:
Administrative Decisions (Judicial Review) Act 1977 (Cth)
Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Terrorism Financing Act 2006 (Cth)
Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Terrorism Financing Rules 2025 (Cth)
Australian Constitution (Cth)
Corporations Law (Vic)
Insurance Contracts Act 1984 (Cth)
Judiciary Act 1903 (Cth)
Jurisdiction of Courts (Cross vesting) Act 1987 (Cth)
Property Law Act 1969 (WA)
Public Sector Management Act 1994 (WA)
Racing and Wagering Western Australia Act 2003 (WA)
Racing and Wagering Western Australian Regulations 2003 (WA)
Rules of the Supreme Court 1971 (WA)
Rules of the Supreme Court 1965 (UK)
Trustees Act 1962 (WA)
Wheat Marketing Act 1989 (Cth)
Result:
Respondent's objection upheld
Review Application dismissed
Category: B
Representation:
Counsel:
Applicant : M Pudovskis
Respondent : S B Nadilo
Solicitors:
Applicant : Ryan & Co Solicitors Pty Ltd
Respondent : Allens
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Cases referred to in decision(s):
Agar v Hyde [2000] HCA 41; (2000) 201 CLR 552
Ainsworth v Criminal Justice Commission [1992] HCA 10; (1992) 175 CLR
564
Chief Executive Officer of Australian Transaction Reports and Analysis Centre
v Crown Melbourne Limited [2023] FCA 782; (2023) 168 ACSR 421
Chief Executive Officer of Australian Transaction Reports and Analysis Centre
v TAB Limited (No 3) [2017] FCA 1296
Chief Executive Officer of Australian Transaction Reports and Analysis Centre
v Westpac Banking Corporation [2020] FCA 1538; (2020)
148 ACSR 247
Desfosses v Martinson [2018] WASC 114
Griffith University v Tang [2005] HCA 7; (2005) 221 CLR 99
King v Ombudsman [2020] SASCFC 90; (2020) 137 SASR 18
Lipohar v The Queen [1999] HCA 65; (1999) 200 CLR 485
LPDT v Minister for Immigration, Citizenship, Migrant Services and
Multicultural Affairs [2024] HCA 12; (2024) 280 CLR 321
Monteleone v The Owners of the Old Soap Factory [2007] WASCA 79
NEAT Domestic Trading Pty Ltd v AWB Ltd [2003] HCA 35;
(2003) 216 CLR 277
Obeid v R [2015] NSWCCA 309; (2015) 91 NSWLR 226
Patole v Child & Adolescent Health Service [2024] WASCA 126
Pintarich v Deputy Commissioner of Taxation [2018] FCAFC 79; (2018)
262 FCR 41
Plaintiff M61/2010E v Commonwealth of Australia [2010] HCA 41;
(2010) 243 CLR 319
Régie Nationale des Usines Renault v Zhang [2002] HCA 10; (2002)
210 CLR 491
Voth v Manildra Flour Mills [1990] HCA 55; (1990) 171 CLR 538
Zurich Insurance Co Limited v Koper [2023] HCA 25; (2023) 277 CLR 164
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HOWARD J:
1 By an application for judicial review filed on 13 March 2026
under O 56 r 2 of the Rules of the Supreme Court 1971 (WA) (Rules)
(Review Application), the applicant seeks a writ of certiorari and a
declaration in respect of notices of exclusion issued by the respondent
to him:
1. dated 16 September 2025 (September 2025 Notice); and
2. dated 20 January 2026 (January 2026 Notice);
(together the Notices).
2 The grounds of the Review Application are:
1. The Respondent committed jurisdictional error and erred in law,
in that:
(a) the Respondent, in its capacity as a 'reporting entity'
under the Anti-Money Laundering and
Counter-Terrorism Financing Act 2006 (Cth)
(AML-CTF Act), purported to exercise its power under
s 92(4) of the AML-CTF to, in effect, prohibit the
Applicant from wagering at totalisator agencies in
Western Australia, and from having a wagering account
(see 'notice of exclusion' issued to the Applicant dated
16 September 2025 and 'updated notice of exclusion'
dated 20 January 2026);
(b) the exercise of the power under s 92(4) AML-CTF Act
was conditioned on the prior giving of written notice
pursuant to s 92(2), which could be given only if the
Respondent had reasonable grounds within s 92(1)(c);
and
(c) the Respondent did not, before issuing the 'exclusion
notice' in purported exercise of its powers under s 92(4),
give written notice as required by s 92(2).
3 On 25 March 2026, the respondent filed a memorandum of
conditional appearance.
4 By its chamber summons filed on 8 April 2026 (Respondent's
Application), the respondent sought the Review Application be 'set
aside and dismissed, or alternatively the proceeding be permanently
stayed'.
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5 These reasons concern the Respondent's Application which, in
substance, sought to raise a preliminary or threshold objection to the
effect that the applicant cannot succeed in his Review Application.
This was expressed as a challenge to the Court's jurisdiction to
determine the Review Application and was sought to be agitated
through its conditional appearance.
6 For reasons I set out below, I consider that the respondent's filing
of the conditional appearance and its application thereon was
inapposite. I do not wish to be over-technical in this, but it did have
some implications for the way that the parties initially submitted the
Court should approach the state of the evidence in the Respondent's
Application.
7 The applicant fully joined issue with the preliminary or threshold
objection, and took no point in his submissions as to the
appropriateness of the conditional appearance. In those circumstances,
I consider it appropriate to hear and determine the substance of the
Respondent's Application if possible.
8 From here, unless I indicate otherwise, where I refer to the
Respondent's Application I am referring to the substance of its
preliminary or threshold objection.
9 I have approached the substance of the preliminary or threshold
objection by considering whether, on the facts not in dispute, the
respondent has established that the Review Application is bound to fail
and should be determined summarily.
10 I note that O 56 r 5(2)(j) of the Rules would allow the Court to
refuse the Review Application if it has no reasonable prospect of
succeeding. And, O 56 r 5(k) allows the Court to grant or refuse the
Review Application, in any event.
11 I have adopted, in effect, the well-known standard to be applied to
a summary judgment application.
12 That is, I consider I should only uphold the respondent's
preliminary or threshold objection if I come to the view that it renders
the Review Application so clearly untenable that it could not possibly
succeed at a final hearing. The applicant submitted that, at this point in
the proceeding, he needed only to demonstrate a good, arguable case
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and that bar was not terribly high.1 I have also borne in mind that the
Respondent's Application should not be allowed to stultify the
development of the law.
13 Further, I consider that the question should be approached at this
point as a matter of law without requiring the determination of any
contested factual matter.
14 If the Review Application is not disposed of summarily, then it
appeared from the hearing that the applicant, at the least, would wish to
put on further evidence before any final determination of his
application.2
The evidence in the Respondent's Application
15 In support of its application, the respondent relied on two
affidavits of its solicitor, Charles Philip Blaxill:
1. made and filed on 8 April 2026 (first Blaxill affidavit); and
2. made and filed on 6 May 2026 (second Blaxill affidavit).
16 In opposition to the Respondent's Application, the applicant
relied on:
1. his affidavit made and filed on 29 April 2026; and
2. an affidavit of his solicitor, Louis Lut-Yiu Lee made and filed
on 29 April 2026.
Matters not in dispute in the Respondent's Application
The respondent
17 The respondent was established by s 4(1) of the Racing and
Wagering Western Australia Act 2003 (WA) (RW Act).3
18 The RW Act provides that the respondent:
1. is not an agent of the Crown: s 5; and
1 ts 39.
2 ts 10. See also applicant's supplementary submissions filed 26 May 2026 (applicant's supplementary
submissions) [16].
3 I note that the respondent has been referred to by the parties and within the Act as RWWA. I have used both
terms interchangeably throughout these reasons.
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2. is not a public sector body under the Public Sector Management
Act 1994 (WA): s 6(1).
19 Part 3 of the RW Act makes general provision for the functions
and powers of the respondent.
20 Division 2 of Part 3 of the RW Act is headed 'General powers and
related provisions'. It includes the following:
30. Powers generally
(1) RWWA has all the powers it needs to perform its
functions.
(2) RWWA may for the purpose of performing
a function —
…
(b) enter into any contract or arrangement
including a contract or arrangement with any
person for the performance of the function by
that person on behalf of RWWA; and
…
(3) Subsection (2) does not limit subsection (1) or any of
RWWA's other powers.
…
21 Part 5 of the RW Act makes provision for specialised functions of
the respondent in relation to gambling.
22 Relevantly, the respondent, as deposed to in the second Blaxill
affidavit:
1. as part of its statutory functions, carries on the business of
operating an off-course totalisator wagering service and retail
network, trading as the TAB;4
2. has a statutory monopoly over providing totalisator services in
Western Australia;5
4 Second Blaxill affidavit [7(c)].
5 Second Blaxill affidavit [7(d)].
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3. provides both online and in-person wagering services via the
following channels:
(i) the TABtouch website and mobile application;
(ii) self-service terminals and over the counter at TAB retail
venues located in Western Australia; and
(iii) telephone betting;6 and
4. has a TAB retail network comprising five managed agencies,
296 independent agencies, and 61 race clubs.7
23 For present purposes, I understood that the following matters were
not in dispute, namely that the respondent, at all material times:
1. was a reporting entity within the meaning of the Anti-Money
Laundering and Counter-Terrorism Financing Act 2006 (Cth)
(AML/CTF Act or the Act) because it provided a 'designated
service' within the meaning of s 6 of the AML/CTF Act;8
2. provided designated services (as defined in section 6 of the
AML/CTF Act) in the course of its wagering operations and
carried out a 'gambling business' at the relevant times;9
3. had the applicant as a customer within the meaning of the
AML/CTF Act with respect to the its gambling business;10
4. was enrolled with the Australian Transaction Reports and
Analysis Centre (AUSTRAC) and is subject to the obligations
imposed by the AML/CTF Act and the Anti-Money Laundering
and Counter-Terrorism Financing Rules 2025 (Cth);11
5. was required by the AML/CTF Act to have and comply with an
anti-money laundering and counter-terrorism financing
program;12 and
6. '… has … adopted and maintained an AML/CTF program … in
accordance with sections 81, 82 and 84 of the AML/CTF Act'.13
6 Second Blaxill affidavit [7(e)].
7 Second Blaxill affidavit [7(f)].
8 Applicant's submissions filed on 29 April 2026 (applicant's submissions) [11].
9 Applicant's submissions [11].
10 Applicant's submissions [13(b)].
11 Second Blaxill affidavit [7(j)].
12 Applicant's submissions [11].
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24 There was no evidence, however, before the Court as to the terms
of the contractual (or other) relationship between the respondent and
the independent agencies which were offering the services of
the respondent.
The applicant
25 The following matters were deposed to by the applicant in his
affidavit and were not, as I understand it, disputed for the purposes of
the Respondent's Application:
[3] Between around 2018 and September 2025 I was a full-time
professional bettor. I wagered primarily through TABtouch
retail outlets across Western Australia, my preference being to
place bets in person at TABs.
[4] I also held a "TABtouch" electronic account that enabled me to
place bets electronically, though my preference was to place
bets in-store at TABs, which did not require an account.
[5] I placed bets on a variety of sports, but only very rarely on horse
races.
[6] Throughout this period, I consistently maintained the same
betting patterns and practices, with no prior issues or regulatory
interventions of any kind.14
26 As noted, it was common ground that the applicant was a betting
customer of the respondent. The applicant appeared to accept that their
relationship was a contractual one.15
27 There was no evidence before the Court as to the contractual terms
governing that relationship (outside of any which may have been
provided by statute).16
28 Counsel for the applicant, correctly in my view, accepted that the
respondent could choose whether or not to contract with the applicant.17
29 The applicant also accepted that he had no statutory right to any of
the betting services from which the Notices purported to exclude him.18
13 Second Blaxill affidavit [8(a)]; applicant's submissions [12].
14 Applicant's affidavit made and filed on 29 April 2026.
15 ts 35 - 37, 41.
16 ts 15 - 16, 49.
17 ts 37.
18 ts 40.
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The Notices sought to be impugned by the application
30 On 16 September 2025, the respondent issued to the applicant the
September 2025 Notice.19
31 The first part of the September 2025 Notice stated:
Racing and Wagering Western Australia (RWWA) recently attempted
to contact you regarding our anti-money laundering (AML) and
counter-terrorism financing (CTF) obligations with a request for
additional information.
As of the date of this notice, we haven't received a response within the
timeframe set out in the letter. In accordance with RWWA's
Responsible Wagering and AML/CTF program, RWWA gives notice
that from the date of this letter:
1. you, Luke Minh Vu (Excluded Person) do not have consent to
enter or remain at, and are excluded from attending, any venue
that forms part of the WA TAB Retail Network, which includes
Hasler Road in Osborne Park, standalone TABs, hotels, clubs
and the Casino;
2. RWWA, trading under any branding (including RWWA, Racing
and Wagering WA, TAB, TABtouch) does not wish to transact
with you including accepting any wagers from you; and
3. you are no longer permitted to use any account betting facilities
and any existing TABtouch accounts will also be closed,
(collectively the Exclusions).20 (emphasis in the original)
32 I note that the applicant does not accept that the respondent had
sent him a letter prior to the September 2025 Notice.21
33 At the hearing, the respondent accepted that the reference in the
second (unnumbered) paragraph quoted above to 'the letter' was
in error.22
34 What, if any, non-letter contact there was between the respondent
and applicant prior to the September 2025 Notice does not, in my view,
need to be resolved for present purposes.
19 First Blaxill affidavit, CPB-1 at page 4.
20 First Blaxill affidavit, CPB-1 at page 4.
21 ts 45.
22 ts 13 - 14.
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35 On 20 January 2026, the respondent issued the January 2026
Notice.23
36 The January 2026 Notice stated, in part:
As noted to you in our Exclusion Notice dated 16 September 2025 (the
Original Exclusion Notice), Racing and Wagering Western Australia
(RWWA) has determined that it is unwilling to continue to allow you
the use of or access to our online (TABtouch) and retail (WA TAB)
wagering services as a result of your failure to adequately respond to
RWWA's request for additional information. This determination is
unchanged.
The purpose of this letter is to further clarify the venues that are not
subject to the Original Exclusion Notice.
Clarification
RWWA confirms that from 16 September 2025:
1. you, Luke Minh Vu (Excluded Person) do not have consent to
enter or remain at any venue that forms part of the WA TAB
Retail Network, including RWWA's Head Office located in
Osborne Park;
2. you are further not permitted to place wagers, purchase vouchers
or have tickets paid at any designated WA TAB service within
hotels, clubs, racecourses and the Crown Casino. For the
avoidance of doubt, you are permitted to attend those venues
outside of these circumstances (eg, for the purpose of accessing
non-WA TAB/TABtouch services within hotels, clubs,
racecourses and the Casino);
3. RWWA, trading under any brand (including RWWA, Racing
and Wagering WA, TAB, TABtouch) does not wish to transact
with you including accepting any wagers from you; and
4. you are no longer permitted to use any online betting facilities
and your existing TABtouch accounts have been closed,
(collectively the Exclusions).24 (emphasis in the original)
37 It may be seen that the Notices purported to:
1. in effect, terminate existing contractual relations with the
applicant: see [3] of the September 2025 Notice as quoted in
23 First Blaxill affidavit, CPB-2 at page 6.
24 First Blaxill affidavit, CPB-2 at page 6.
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[31] above, and [4] of the January 2026 Notice as quoted in [36]
above;
2. act prospectively to exclude the applicant from certain venues
for certain purposes: see [1] of the September 2025 Notice, and
[1] and [2] of the January 2026 Notice; and
3. indicate that the respondent would not transact with the
applicant after the Notice: see [2] of the September 2025 Notice
and [3] of the January 2026 Notice.
The relevant provisions of the AML/CTF Act
38 Section 92 (contained in Pt 7) of the AML/CTF Act is central to
the Review Application.
39 Section 92 of the AML/CTF Act provided, at the relevant times of
the issuing of the September 2025 Notice and the January 2026
Notice,25 as follows:
92 Request to obtain information from a customer
Scope
(1) This section applies to a reporting entity if:
(a) the reporting entity has adopted:
(i) a standard anti-money laundering and
counter-terrorism financing program; or
(ii) a joint anti-money laundering and
counter-terrorism financing program;
that applies to the reporting entity; and
(b) the reporting entity is providing, or has provided, a
designated service to a particular customer; and
(c) the reporting entity has reasonable grounds to
believe that the customer has information that is
likely to assist the reporting entity to comply with:
(i) Part A of the program; or
25 It was common ground that s 92 of the AML/CTF Act, as it was, at the material time and as quoted, has
been subsequently repealed. Neither party placed any reliance on the repeal nor submitted that it had an
impact on the determination of the respondent's application; see ts 23. I have referred in these reasons to the
Act in the present tense, but I am referring to it as it was at 16 September 2025, which the parties accepted
was the relevant form of the legislation.
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(ii) if the program has been varied on one or
more occasions—Part A of the program as
varied.
Request to give information
(2) The reporting entity may, by written notice given to the
customer, request the customer to give the reporting
entity, within the period and in the manner specified in
the notice, any such information.
(3) The notice must set out the effect of subsection (4).
Power to discontinue, restrict or limit provision of designated
services
(4) If the customer does not comply with the request, the
reporting entity may do any or all of following:
(a) refuse to continue to provide a designated service
to the customer;
(b) refuse to commence to provide a designated
service to the customer;
(c) restrict or limit the provision of a designated
service to the customer;
until the customer provides the information covered by
the request.
Protection from liability
(5) An action, suit or proceeding (whether criminal or civil)
does not lie against:
(a) the reporting entity; or
(b) an officer, employee or agent of the reporting
entity acting in the course of his or her office,
employment or agency;
in relation to anything done, or omitted to be done, in
good faith by the reporting entity, officer, employee or
agent in the exercise, or purported exercise, of the power
conferred by subsection (4).
40 As noted above, it was common ground that the respondent was, at
all material times, a reporting entity and was required to have (and
comply with) an anti-money laundering and counter-terrorism financing
program under the AML/CTF Act. Further, and again as noted, it was
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common ground that the respondent had such a program at all material
times.
41 The scheme of the AML/CTF Act has been considered in a
number of Federal Court decisions which were cited to me including:
Chief Executive Officer of Australian Transaction Reports and
Analysis Centre v TAB Limited (No 3) [2017] FCA 1296 (TAB (No 3))
(Perram J); Chief Executive Officer of the Australian Transaction
Reports and Analysis Centre v Westpac Banking Corporation
[2020] FCA 1538; (2020) 148 ACSR 247 (AUSTRAC v Westpac)
(Beach J); and Chief Executive Officer of the Australian Transaction
Reports and Analysis Centre v Crown Melbourne Limited [2023]
FCA 782; (2023) 168 ACSR 421 (Lee J).
42 In TAB (No 3), Perram J said:
[3] From a regulatory perspective, there are a number of ways
anti-money laundering and counter-terrorism financing
('AML/CTF') measures might be taken. … Another might be by
identifying areas of risk within the economy and seeking to
manage that risk. In Australia, the Parliament has decided that it
will pursue the risk management approach. Upon the
introduction of the Bill which became the Act into the House of
Representatives, the relevant Minister said this:
'Consistent with the Government's commitment to
reducing regulatory burdens on business, the legislative
package implements a risk-based approach to
regulation. Reporting entities will manage operational
risks through AML/CTF programs developed in
accordance with operational Rules. AUSTRAC will
monitor compliance with these programs and will
assess the reasonableness of the entity's risk
assessment.
The risk-based regulatory approach recognises that
reporting entities have the experience and knowledge
needed to assess and mitigate risk. It will also help
mitigate compliance costs by providing industry with
the tools to concentrate their resources on areas where
money laundering and terrorism financing risk is
higher. Industry has endorsed the risk-based approach.
Australia's risked-based approach is similar to that
taken in the United States and the United Kingdom.'
[4] It will be seen that this regulatory decision by the Parliament put
at the heart of the scheme of regulation, the concept of
AML/CTF programs, which would be monitored by the
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regulator, the Australian Transaction Reports and Analysis
Centre ('AUSTRAC'). In a sense, it involved the reposing in
industry of a degree of trust for its operation of the AML/CTF
risk management system. The Act deals severely with breaches
of that trust.
43 Perhaps unsurprisingly, the AML/CTF Act is complex.26
Relevantly, for present purposes, the AML/CTF Act's simplified outline
in s 4 provides the following:
• Reporting entities must report the following to the Chief
Executive Officer of AUSTRAC (the Australian Transaction
Reports and Analysis Centre):
(a) suspicious matters;
(b) certain transactions above a threshold.
…
• Reporting entities must have and comply with anti-money
laundering and counter-terrorism financing programs.
44 Part 3 of the AML/CTF Act broadly imposes on a reporting entity
an obligation to report 'suspicious matters' and then provides, by s 41(2)
of the Act, a penalty if the reporting entity fails to do so within the
specified period.
45 Part 7 has its own simplified outline in s 80 which is as follows:
• A reporting entity must have and comply with an anti-money
laundering and counter-terrorism financing program.
• An anti-money laundering and counter-terrorism financing
program is divided into Part A (general) and Part B (customer
identification).
• Part A of an anti-money laundering and counter-terrorism
financing program is designed to identify, mitigate and manage
the risk a reporting entity may reasonably face that the provision
by the reporting entity of designated services at or through a
permanent establishment of the entity in Australia might
(whether inadvertently or otherwise) involve or facilitate:
(a) money laundering; or
(b) financing of terrorism.
26 TAB (No 3) [5] (Perram J).
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• Part B of an anti-money laundering and counter-terrorism
financing program sets out the applicable customer
identification procedures for customers of the reporting entity.
46 As noted, s 92 is within Pt 7 of the AML/CTF Act.
47 Also within Pt 7, s 81 of the AML/CTF Act prevents a reporting
entity from providing a designated service to a customer if it has not
adopted and then maintained an anti-money laundering and
counter-terrorism financing program (Program). Breach of that
provision carries a civil penalty by s 81(2) of the Act.
48 Further provision is made for a civil penalty offence if the
reporting entity does not comply with its Program: s 82 of the
AML/CTF Act.
49 It is expressly provided that a Program is not a legislative
instrument: s 83(2) of the AML/CTF Act.
50 The significance of such a Program was stated by Beach J in
AUSTRAC v Westpac:
[139] The AML/CTF program is the principal document for setting
out the risk-based systems and controls that are required to
ensure compliance with the Act and the Rules. And the
requirement to carry out and maintain current ML/TF risk
assessments of designated services is central to the AML/CTF
program and to the Act. Further, risk assessments are the
foundation of the obligation to identify, mitigate and manage the
ML/TF risks relating to designated services. And in order to
appropriately mitigate and manage its ML/TF risk and have
appropriate risk-based controls as required by the Act, Westpac
must first identify and assess the ML/TF risks it reasonably
faces.27
The threshold or preliminary question to be determined
51 The respondent's submissions in support of its application are, in
overview, captured by the following:
[14] The notices issued by RWWA were not issued in RWWA's
capacity as a reporting entity under the AML/CTF Act. In any
event, any decision or conduct by RWWA under the AML/CTF
Act is not of a public character and, as such, they are outside the
province of administrative law.
27 AUSTRAC v Westpac [139].
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[15] If, contrary to RWWA's position, this Court considers it
arguable that RWWA has made a decision of an administrative
character under the AML/CTF Act, State Supreme Courts, such
as this Court, are excluded from the field of judicial review of
such decisions.28
52 That first paragraph quoted above contains two propositions.
53 The first proposition is that the Notices were not, in effect, issued
in exercise of a power derived in or from s 92(4) of the AML/CTF Act.
54 The second proposition is that even if they were issued under
s 92(4) of the Act, that was not a decision capable of being judicially
reviewed.
55 The second paragraph quoted in [51] above raised, as I understood
the respondent's submissions, a question as to the interaction between
s 39(2) of the Judiciary Act 1903 (Cth) and the Administrative
Decisions (Judicial Review) Act 1977 (Cth) (AD(JR) Act).29
56 Further, there may be a latent proposition within the argument
raised as to the effect of s 92(5) of the AML/CTF Act and whether it
had the effect of (permissibly or effectively) excluding or ousting this
Court's review jurisdiction.30
57 These appear to raise difficult issues. On the approach I have
taken, I do not need to resolve them to resolve the respondent's
objection.
58 In opposition, the applicant contended for four propositions to
support his contention that this Court has 'jurisdiction' to decide the
Review Application, namely:
1. the Review Application concerns a decision (by the Notices)
made by the respondent under s 92(4) of the AML/CTF Act,
which is amenable to judicial review because it was of an
administrative character (Proposition 1);31
2. as a general proposition, the Court has jurisdiction to consider
matters arising under federal statutes, pursuant and subject to
s 39(2) of the Judiciary Act read with s 76(ii) of the
28 Respondent's submissions filed on 8 April 2026 (respondent's submissions).
29 Respondent's submissions [39] - [40].
30 ts 24, 29, 38; Respondent's supplementary submissions filed on 15 May 2026 (respondent's
supplementary submissions). See also applicant's supplementary submissions [5] - [14].
31 Applicant's submissions [1(a)]. See also applicant's supplementary submissions [4].
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Constitution. This includes judicial review of decisions made
under federal statutes, including the AML/CTF Act, subject to
the terms of that Act and of any other Act, including s 9(1)(a) of
the AD(JR) Act (Proposition 2);32
3. section 9(1)(a) of the AD(JR) Act did not disapply s 39(2) of
the Judiciary Act in the circumstances of the case, having regard
to the nature of the decision made under the AML/CTF Act
(Proposition 3);33 and
4. alternatively (if Proposition 3 is wrong), jurisdiction was
reinvested in this Court by s 4(1)(c) of the Jurisdiction of
Courts (Cross-vesting) Act 1987 (Cth) (Proposition 4).34
59 At the least, the applicant contended that the Review Application
should not be summarily determined.
60 The applicant submitted that the Notices accorded very closely
with the terms of s 92 of the AML/CTF Act in support of his argument
that the respondent was exercising a power relevantly under s 92.35
61 Entirely properly, counsel for the respondent accepted, for the
purposes of its application, that if Proposition 1 were to be accepted as
a matter of substance, its threshold objection should be dismissed, and
the matter should proceed to a full hearing.36
62 As to Proposition 1, the respondent submitted:
[28] … The relationship between a reporting entity and a customer is
primarily governed by a private contract. While section 92
provides the reporting entity with the power to obtain
information, and with a 'shield' and authority for the entity to
act, any decision to stop a service is a commercial one that may
be made relying on other rights available to RWWA. Put
another way, in issuing the Exclusions the subject of the notices,
RWWA is not restricted only to the process and powers
conferred on it by section 92 of the AML/CTF Act. Section 92
recognises a decision for which no statutory authority was
needed.
[29] RWWA's position is that:
32 Applicant's submissions [1(b)].
33 Applicant's submissions [1(c)].
34 Applicant's submissions [1(d)].
35 ts 44 - 45.
36 Respondent's reply submissions filed on 6 May 2026 (respondent's reply) [25]; ts 3.
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29.1 to the extent that RWWA excluded the Applicant from
entering onto, or remaining at, RWWA's premises,
RWWA did so relying on its common law rights as an
occupier of those premises.
…
[30] In the above premises, the application for judicial review is
misconceived insofar as it purports to attack a decision or
conduct by [the respondent] pursuant to the AML/CTF Act.
There was, in truth, no such decision or conduct.37
(citations omitted)
63 The respondent submitted that the Notices were not in exercise of
any power under s 92(4) of the AML/CTF Act, principally because:
1. the Notices were not expressed as being pursuant to s 92(4) of
the AML/CTF Act;38 and
2. when considered, it was apparent they did not follow the form
of s 92(4) of the AML/CTF Act: principally because the Notices
made a 'final' decision, rather than a decision pending the
receipt of information as envisaged by s 92(4).39
64 With respect, I consider that there is considerable force in the
respondent's second submission referred to immediately above.
65 The Notices on their face did not apply on some pro tem or interim
basis until information was supplied by the applicant. Further, the
Notices purported to exclude the applicant in the future from certain
venues or allowed him to attend a venue but for only a limited purpose,
neither of which are expressly provided for in s 92(4).
66 Those matters suggest, from the face of the Notices alone, that the
respondent was not exercising a power from s 92(4) of the
AML/CTF Act.
67 The respondent submitted, rather, that the Notices were given
pursuant to its private contractual rights.40 Further, to the extent that the
Notices excluded the applicant from its premises, then the respondent
37 Respondent's submissions.
38 Respondent's submissions [28].
39 ts 22, 51.
40 Respondent's submissions [28].
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did so relying on its common law rights as an occupier of those
premises.41
68 That last submission was, as the applicant submitted,42 necessarily
limited by the respondent's evidence that it only administered five
physical agencies.43 That may be compared with '296 independent
agencies',44 in respect of which there was no evidence as to the
contractual or other relationship between the respondent and the
operators of those independent agencies.45
69 Further, the respondent submitted that the Notices - to the extent
that they refused to provide the applicant with wagering services - were
done pursuant to reg 32(1) of the Racing and Wagering Western
Australian Regulations 2003 (WA) in exercise of its general power to
contract as a statutory corporation.46
70 The parties devoted some effort in their written submissions to the
question of how the Notices should be construed or read. In particular,
as to what they revealed as to the respondent's intentions and whether it
considered it was exercising powers under s 92 of the AML/CTF Act.
71 I have not sought to resolve that issue because I do not think it
affects the respondent's threshold objection.
72 Further, as I understood it, there was an acceptance on the part of
the respondent that what it may have thought it was doing by issuing
the Notices was not, and could not, be determinative of its threshold
objection.47
73 In any event, there was no evidence before the Court (outside of
the terms of the Notices themselves) as to the respondent's thought
processes in issuing the Notices, nor as to what its intentions were in so
41 Respondent's submissions [29.1].
42 ts 34. See also the applicant's supplementary submissions [3].
43 Second Blaxill affidavit [7(f)].
44 Second Blaxill affidavit [7(f)].
45 ts 49 - 50. See also applicant's supplementary submissions [3].
46 Respondent's reply [16]; also ts 16. At [29.2] and [29.3] of the respondent's submissions, it cited rules 62W
and 62X(1) of the Rules of Wagering 2005 made pursuant to the Racing and Wagering Western Australia Act
2003 (WA). By the respondent's reply, it accepted that those rules did not apply: see footnote 16. I have not
considered those Rules further.
47 ts 3 - 4. Whether the respondent had purported to exercise a power under s 92(4) of the AML/CTF Act was
accepted by counsel for the respondent to have not been relevant to the question of law: ts 13, 21, 37.
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doing (assuming that the respondent's subjective intentions were
relevant).48
74 Most favourably to the applicant, I have approached the
preliminary or threshold objection on the assumption that the
respondent was exercising 'rights' to cease to, and refuse to, trade with
the applicant pursuant to, or sourced from, s 92(4) of the AML/CTF
Act. That is, notwithstanding my observation at [64] - [65] above as to
the considerable force in the respondent's submissions to the contrary.
75 That is, I have not accepted, for the purposes of this application,
the submission made by the respondent that it was solely exercising
'other' rights at common law, namely as an occupier or as a contracting
party, unaffected by the provisions of s 92(4) of the AML/CTF Act.49
76 As a result of this approach, I have not sought to resolve the
question of whether the respondent could pray in aid other general law
rights which may have been exercised to the same effect or end result as
that provided for in s 92(4) of the AML/CTF Act.50
77 Obviously enough, I am not deciding these questions finally
against the respondent.
78 Having made that assumption (in [74] above), I turn now to the
question of whether the decision evidenced by the Notices and made,
assumedly, under the right or rights given to the respondent by s 92(4)
of the AML/CTF Act was a decision reviewable by this Court on an
application for judicial review.51
79 The applicant points to:
1. the procedure to be followed in s 92(2) before the power
in s 92(4) of the AML/CTF Act could be exercised;
2. the legal effect on a person of making such a decision or giving
such a notice; and
48 Notwithstanding that lack of evidence, the respondent submitted that whether there was a decision as
alleged by the applicant was a question of fact to be determined on the evidence: Respondent's reply [6]; ts 4
- both its oral and written submissions relied upon the majority decision in Pintarich v Deputy
Commissioner of Taxation [2018] FCAFC 79; (2018) 262 FCR 41 per Moshinsky & Derrington JJ [152] -
[153]; cf the applicant's submission: ts 45 - 46.
49 See, eg, ts 51. See also applicant's supplementary submissions [15].
50 ts 41.
51 As will be seen below from my consideration of Patole v Child & Adolescent Health Service
[2024] WASCA 126 the framing of the question this way is by way of shorthand expression only and is not
intended to ignore the approach taken by Quinlan CJ and Mitchell JA therein [12].
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3. that s 92(5) referred to s 92(4) of the AML/CTF Act as a power,
as indicators that what was exercised was a statutory power which was
capable of being judicially reviewed.52
80 The respondent submitted that as a 'reporting entity' under the
AML/CTF Act it did not exercise any regulatory function of
government and did not exercise a public power.53 It relied, in this
respect, on its Program not being a legislative instrument by reason of
s 83(2) of the AML/CTF Act.54
81 The respondent submitted that when one has regard to s 92(4) of
the AML/CTF Act, its terms were not of the type that conferred a
public power, because the provision did not say how any of the things
in s 92(4) might be done, whether by a notice or otherwise. That is, the
provision lacked the features, it was submitted, of an administrative
power limited by a statute.55
Consideration
82 I start with the general observations made in Patole v Child &
Adolescent Health Service [2024] WASCA 126 (Patole), where
Quinlan CJ and Mitchell JA stated:
[6] Judicial review for jurisdictional error is fundamentally
concerned with enforcing the legal limits on the exercise of
administrative power by public bodies. In the case of statutory
powers, jurisdictional error will occur where the public body
does something which was not authorised by the empowering
legislation or fails to do something required by the relevant
legislation. The inquiry as to whether there has been
jurisdictional error in the exercise of a statutory decision-making
authority looks to whether the decision has been made in breach
of the express and implied conditions of conferral of that
authority so as to lack the legal effect which the statute attributes
to the exercise of that authority. (citations omitted)
83 Further, Quinlan CJ and Mitchell JA stated:
[12] … Where there is an allegation raised by a person, who has
standing to claim relief, that the State or a public authority has
acted in excess of power, this court can adjudicate on whether
the legal limits on the relevant power have been exceeded. If it
52 ts 49. See also applicant's supplementary submissions [2].
53 ts 13.
54 ts 27.
55 ts 21.
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determines that the legal limits of executive power have been
transgressed, the court has jurisdiction to grant relief by way of
a 'prerogative' writ (mandamus, prohibition, certiorari or habeas
corpus), a mandatory or prohibitory injunction or a declaration.
The question in such cases is not whether the decision is subject
to judicial review, but the identification of the legal limits of the
relevant power and a determination of whether those limits have
been transgressed.
[13] The issue in this case, both at first instance and on appeal, was
largely framed by the parties as being whether the decision to
engage the second respondent was 'not amenable to judicial
review because it was not made in the exercise of a public
power'. In our respectful view, that is not a helpful way of
framing the issue. The impugned decision is the decision of a
public officer acting as delegate of a public authority (the board
of the first respondent) to enter into an employment contract
with an individual (the second respondent) on behalf of the
State. That decision is amenable to judicial review in the sense
that this court has jurisdiction to determine whether the legal
limits on the executive government's power to enter into such a
contract have been transgressed. (citations omitted)
84 Those observations of the plurality are, with respect, further borne
out by the restatement of principles by the plurality in LPDT v Minister
for Immigration, Citizenship, Migrant Services and Multicultural
Affairs [2024] HCA 12; (2024) 280 CLR 321 [2], [5] (Gageler CJ,
Gordon, Edelman, Steward, Gleeson and Jagot JJ).
85 Immediately here questions arise as to whether the respondent is
exercising any administrative or public power, and, given that it is not
the State (expressly by reference to the RW Act), whether it is a public
body or public authority in any relevant sense.
86 As Vaughan JA said in Patole, relevantly distinguishing between a
'public power' and a 'private power' is not always simple.56
87 In light of their Honours' observations as to the framing of the
appropriate question as quoted from [13] in [83] above,57 in this case I
understand the parties (and accordingly these reasons) to be asking
whether the respondent's decisions behind the Notices were:
1. of a character in respect of which this Court would grant a
prerogative writ or other 'administrative' remedy; and
56 Patole [121] (Vaughan JA).
57 That is, whether the Act or decision was authorised or conditioned by the empowering legislation.
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2. as part of that, conditioned by legal limits which had been
transgressed.
88 In Patole, the impugned decision was of a public officer acting as
delegate of a public authority to enter into an employment contract on
behalf of the State after a selection process had occurred.58
The disappointed applicant for the position sought judicial review of
the decision on the basis that it was attended with a reasonable
apprehension of bias.59
89 It was held that the relevant contract of employment was entered
into by the exercise of a non-statutory executive power of the State.60
That non-statutory executive power of the State allowed the entering
into contracts of employment with persons to perform ordinary
governmental functions, including the provision of health services.61
90 It was held that the outcome of the case was not dependent on
whether the State's power to enter into the contract was statutory or
non-statutory,62 as in either case there was not a statutory (or other)
condition on the valid exercise of the power which compelled
compliance with the rules of procedural fairness.63
91 By a process of statutory construction, the Court concluded that
the relevant legislation did not intend to condition the entry into the
relevant employment contract with an obligation to accord procedural
fairness;64 rather the relevant legislation provided for other consequences
of such a breach.
92 As quoted in [83] above, the plurality said that the decision in that
case was 'amenable to judicial review' in the sense that the Court could
determine whether the legal limits on the power to enter into the
impugned contract had been transgressed.65 Because of this
observation, care needs to be taken in framing the question in terms of
whether the particular decision was 'amenable to judicial review'
(and whether the Court has jurisdiction to hear the Review
Application). This has informed my determination of the objection by
reference to the principles applied to a summary judgment application.
58 Patole [13] (Quinlan CJ & Mitchell JA); [67] (Vaughan JA).
59 Patole [2] (Quinlan CJ & Mitchell JA); [64] (Vaughan JA).
60 Patole [16] and [19], [23] (Quinlan CJ & Mitchell JA); [76] - [77] and [124] (Vaughan JA).
61 Patole [16] (Quinlan CJ & Mitchell JA); [76] and [119] (Vaughan JA).
62 Patole [25] (Quinlan CJ & Mitchell JA); [113] and [162] (Vaughan JA).
63 Patole [25] (Quinlan CJ & Mitchell JA); see also [122] (Vaughan JA).
64 Patole [39] - [41] (Quinlan CJ & Mitchell JA); [156] - [161] (Vaughan JA).
65 Patole [13] (Quinlan CJ and Mitchell JA).
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93 While the respondent was created by the RW Act, it is specifically
not an agent of the Crown, nor a public sector body, as noted in
[18] above.
94 Part 5 of the RW Act provides for the respondent to have the
function of carrying on the business of gambling or wagering.66
But, where it does, it does so, in my view, as a contracting party with
customers or betters pursuant to contracts (the terms of which may be
effected by statutory provisions); not as the State or a public authority.
95 The applicant has no common law or statutory right to gamble
per se, and certainly no right to be provided with gambling and
wagering services by the respondent.
96 While I may accept for present purposes the applicant's evidence
that the Notices have had a considerable impact upon him, they have
not infringed any general law or statutory right or entitlement. That is
most obviously the case in respect of the Notices' prospective effect.
97 I accept that is not determinative of whether a court will grant an
applicant relief by way of, say, a declaration: see, for example,
Ainsworth v Criminal Justice Commission [1992] HCA 10;
(1992) 175 CLR 564 and Plaintiff M61/2010E v Commonwealth of
Australia [2010] HCA 41; (2010) 243 CLR 319). Nonetheless, there
being no infringement of any general or statutory right is of some
assistance in considering the character of the decision made and
evidenced by the Notices.
98 Nor, most significantly in my view, was there anything in the
RW Act that conditioned, relevantly, the making of its decision
reflected in the Notices.
99 The fact that a person or entity exercises a power from a statute
does not (necessarily) mean that the exercise of that power relevantly
answers the description of an administrative power amenable to review
for jurisdictional error.
100 There are many statutes which confer or give a power to do
something in a contractual or other relationship.
101 For example, s 17 of the Trustees Act 1962 (WA) provides a
power of investment of trust funds by a trustee which they may not
otherwise have. Further examples may be seen in provisions such as
66 Section 50 of the RW Act.
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s 11(2) of the Property Law Act 1969 (WA) and s 48 of the Insurance
Contracts Act 1984 (Cth), which may be said to give certain individuals
rights which they may not have had at general law.
102 The exercise of such powers provided by statute, in those cases,
would not, obviously enough, be reviewable for jurisdictional error.
While it may be that the 'power' in the statute only operates in certain
circumstances that is, in my assessment, different from such a power
being 'impliedly constrained or conditioned by administrative law
principles'.67
103 As Doyle J (as he then was) stated in King v Ombudsman
[2020] SASCFC 90; (2020) 137 SASR 18 at [93]:
… the fact that a power takes a statutory form, whilst a relevant
consideration, does not necessarily mean that it is impliedly constrained
by the administrative law principles that commonly condition the
exercise of statutory powers. It is relevant to have regard to the nature
of the power, and not simply its statutory form, when considering
whether any jurisdictional prerequisites to its exercise should be
implied. For example, where the power is, or is closely analogous to, a
power possessed in common with natural persons (such as the power to
contract, to undertake non-coercive investigations or to hold and
transfer property and information), this may be an indicator that it is not
subject to implied statutory constraints.68 (citations omitted)
104 Here, I consider that the respondent has decided (as reflected in
the Notices) to effectively terminate, and then not further enter, a
contractual relationship with the applicant. Even if it has done so under
a power in s 92 of the AML/CTF Act, that was grafted onto its contract
or supplemented its 'powers' at general law. The decision to do so is
not, in my view, conditioned in the way suggested by the applicant such
that the Court would review the decision for jurisdictional error.
105 Whether or not, as a matter of contract, the respondent validly or
lawfully terminated its contract with the applicant was not raised by the
Review Application and is not presently before the Court.
106 Further, the prospective operation of the Notices essentially
reflects a decision made not to contract with the applicant further
which, even if it had been made by the State, is not ordinarily a
67 Patole [122] (Vaughan JA).
68 This passage was approved of by the Court of Appeal in Patole [27] (Quinlan CJ & Mitchell JA);
footnote 71 to [126] (Vaughan JA).
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decision amenable to review for jurisdictional error in the relevant
sense.69
107 I was referred to a number of decisions concerning judicial review
under the AD(JR) Act. In considering those, I have been mindful of
what Vaughan JA said in Patole [137] as to the limited assistance he
found in such cases because of the different definition in the differing
statutory regime.
108 Having said that, albeit from a different statutory context, I have
found some assistance from the decision in NEAT Domestic Trading
Pty Ltd v AWB Ltd [2003] HCA 35; (2003) 216 CLR 277 (NEAT).
There, AWBI, a company incorporated under the then Corporations
Law (Vic), was given a power under a Commonwealth statute70 to
approve or not approve applications made (by others) to the Wheat
Export Authority (Authority) to export grain.
109 An applicant was repeatedly refused an export licence by the
Authority because AWBI refused to give consent. The applicant sought
declarations, relevantly, that AWBI's refusal to approve were decisions
of an administrative character able to be reviewed.71
110 In the Full Court of the Federal Court Heerey J concluded that
AWBI's decisions were 'outside the province of administrative law',72
but neither Mansfield J nor Gyles J considered it necessary to decide
whether AWBI's decisions were beyond the reach of administrative
law.73
111 The plurality (McHugh, Hayne and Callinan JJ) examined whether
AWBI's decisions were of an administrative character made under an
enactment.74 In doing so, they proceeded on the following basis:
1. AWBI did not owe its existence to the Wheat Marketing Act;75
2. to a very great extent, AWBI's powers were regulated by the
applicable company's legislation and judge-made law affecting
directors' duties;76
69 Patole [125] - [126] (Vaughan JA).
70 Wheat Marketing Act 1989 (Cth).
71 NEAT [35] (McHugh, Hayne and Callinan JJ).
72 NEAT [37] (McHugh, Hayne and Callinan JJ).
73 NEAT [38] (McHugh, Hayne and Callinan JJ).
74 NEAT [46] (McHugh, Hayne and Callinan JJ).
75 NEAT [47] and [57] (McHugh, Hayne and Callinan JJ).
76 NEAT [47] and [51] (McHugh, Hayne and Callinan JJ).
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3. AWBI as a private corporation was given a role in a scheme of
public regulation;77
4. AWBI needed no statutory power to give it capacity to provide
an approval or dis-approval in writing as that derived from its
incorporation and the applicable company's legislation;78
5. the Wheat Marketing Act did not expressly or impliedly require
or authorise AWBI to decide whether to approve the application
and it was under no statutory or other obligation to consider that
question;79
6. the provisions of the Wheat Marketing Act were not to be read
as imposing on AWBI a duty to consider 'public' considerations
when deciding whether or not to grant the approval;80 and
7. the determination to approve or disapprove was not a decision
'under an enactment' for the purposes of the AD(JR) Act.81
112 By reference to NEAT, Gummow, Callinan and Heydon JJ in
Griffith University v Tang [2005] HCA 7; (2005) 221 CLR 99 said:
… the statutory condition precedent was a decision made dehors the
federal statute, although, once made, it had a critical effect for the
operation of the federal statute.82 (emphasis in the original)
113 Here, the respondent's giving of the Notices did not derive from
the AML/CTF Act in the same sense that AWBI's approval or
dis-approval did not derive from the Wheat Marketing Act.
114 Here, the respondent's giving of the Notices was an incident of its
right to contract (derived from the RW Act and its contractual rights at
general law and via applicable statutes). That is, notwithstanding that
the power, on the assumptions I have made, was grafted onto its
contract from and by the AML/CTF Act.
77 NEAT [49] (McHugh, Hayne and Callinan JJ).
78 NEAT [54] (McHugh, Hayne and Callinan JJ).
79 NEAT [58] (McHugh, Hayne and Callinan JJ).
80 NEAT [59] (McHugh, Hayne and Callinan JJ).
81 NEAT [55] (McHugh, Hayne and Callinan JJ).
82 Griffith University v Tang [87] (Gummow, Callinan and Heydon JJ). By reference to NEAT, the 'federal
statute' referred to was the Wheat Marketing Act, and the 'statutory condition precedent' was the need for
AWBI's consent under the Wheat Marketing Act.
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115 While the power given to AWBI did not become part of any
contractual terms, nonetheless I consider there is something of an
analogy with the power given by s 92(4) of the AML/CTF Act.
116 It is also the case here, like in NEAT,83 that the AML/CTF Act did
not expressly or impliedly require or authorise the respondent to decide
whether to take any of the steps contained in s 92(4) of the
AML/CTF Act.
117 In this case, and analogously in NEAT, what the respondent (and
AWBI) did was relevantly open to it as a party separately from the
AML/CTF Act (or the Wheat Marketing Act) - even if the power came
from that other statute.
118 For the above reasons, I consider the making of the decision and
issuing of the Notices is not reviewable by this Court for jurisdictional
error. I do not consider that the applicant could be ultimately
successful. I therefore would uphold the respondent's preliminary
objection.
The conditional appearance
119 On the basis of its application being brought on a conditional
appearance, the respondent had made submissions as to the 'evidential
standard' that it had to satisfy.84
120 As properly accepted by the respondent's counsel,85 some of the
difficulties it had identified fell away once it was appreciated that its
application is not to be properly brought on a conditional appearance.
121 To explain why I consider that the filing of the conditional
appearance (and then moving on it) was inapposite, I start by re-stating
some principles.
122 The word 'jurisdiction', at the least:
… may be used (i) to describe the amenability of a defendant to the
court's writ and the geographical reach of that writ, or (ii) rather
differently, to identify the subject-matter of those actions entertained by
83 NEAT [58] (McHugh, Hayne & Callinan JJ).
84 See footnote 12 to the respondent's submissions; and see also [4] and [5] of the respondent's reply.
85 ts 5 - 6.
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a particular court, or, finally (iii) to locate a particular territorial or "law
area" or "law district".86 (citations omitted)
123 From here, I refer:
1. to the first sense used in the quotation above as 'personal
jurisdiction'; and
2. to the second sense used in the quotation above as
'subject-matter jurisdiction'.87
124 'Personal jurisdiction' has been described as:
[34] … the amenability of a person to the service of process as a
precondition to the making of a binding adjudication in a legal
proceeding to which that person is a party. The amenability of a
person to the service of process is a standard, albeit not
invariable, procedural precondition to the exercise by a court of
authority to adjudicate on a subject matter within federal
jurisdiction or State jurisdiction.88 (citations omitted)
125 The respondent, in filing its conditional appearance, did not seek
to challenge the proper service of the Review Application on it89 and so
did not seek to challenge this Court's 'personal' jurisdiction over it.
126 Rather, by its conditional appearance the respondent sought to
challenge this Court's 'subject-matter' jurisdiction over the Review
Application. As noted, I have approached this as an application for
summary determination, which of course, the Court has jurisdiction to
hear and determine. In truth, the respondent was not really challenging
the Court's subject-matter jurisdiction. It was really saying that the
Review Application would inevitably fail.
127 In my view, the orthodox position is that a conditional appearance
is available to a putative defendant who seeks to dispute the Court's
personal jurisdiction over them, and is not to be used to agitate the
question of the Court's subject-matter jurisdiction.90
86 Lipohar v The Queen [1999] HCA 65; (1999) 200 CLR 485 [79] (Gaudron, Gummow & Hayne JJ); as
adopted in Régie Nationale des Usines Renault SA v Zhang [2002] HCA 10; (2002) 210 CLR 491 [7]
(Gleeson CJ, Gaudron, McHugh, Gummow & Hayne JJ); see also Zurich Insurance Co Limited v Koper
[2023] HCA 25; (2023) 277 CLR 164 [34] (Kiefel CJ, Gageler, Gleeson & Jagot JJ).
87 Obeid v R [2015] NSWCCA 309; (2015) 91 NSWLR 226 [10] (Bathurst CJ, Beazley P & Leeming JA).
88 Zurich Insurance Co Ltd v Koper [34] (Kiefel CJ, Gageler, Gleeson & Jagot JJ).
89 ts 2, 5.
90 The learned authors of the commentary in Civil Procedure Western Australia at [12.6.1] and following
uses 'jurisdiction' without obviously differentiating between personal and subject-matter jurisdiction.
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128 The language of O 12 r 6(1) of the Rules and the effect of a
conditional appearance becoming unconditional both support, in my
view, this conclusion.
129 The wording of the sub-rule allows the filing of a conditional
appearance where the putative defendant wishes, amongst other things,
to deny the jurisdiction of the Court 'on the ground of any informality
or irregularity which renders the originating process or the service
thereof invalid…'.91
130 Order 12 r 6(2) of the Rules has the effect that if an application is
not made following a conditional appearance, or if the application is
brought and dismissed, the conditional appearance becomes and
operates as an unconditional appearance.
131 That reflects the position that a defendant may waive any
irregularity in service and so, in effect, subject themselves to the
personal jurisdiction of the Court. However, parties cannot confer
subject-matter on the Court which it does not already have. That is, if a
conditional appearance was appropriately able to challenge the Court's
subject-matter jurisdiction, when it became unconditional, the question
of the Court's subject-matter jurisdiction would still be able to be
agitated.
132 When a conditional appearance may be entered was considered by
the 1979 edition of the Supreme Court Practice (White Book) when the
English Rules92 were still closely analogous to O 12 r 6 and O 12 r 7 of
the Rules. There it is said:
Its effect is to enable a defendant to prevent a judgment in default being
entered against him, while at the same time remaining entitled to object
to any irregularity in the issue or service of the writ or to the jurisdiction
of the Court.
The term "conditional appearance" means an appearance in qualified
terms, reserving to the appearing defendant the right to apply to the
Court to set aside the writ, or service thereof, for an alleged informality
or irregularity which renders either the writ or service invalid or for a
lack of jurisdiction.93
91 O 12 r 6(1) of the Rules.
92 Rules of the Supreme Court 1965 (UK).
93 White Book 1979, [12/7/1].
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133 Where a putative defendant has been served overseas pursuant to a
grant of leave,94 the question of the Court's subject-matter jurisdiction
may have a role to play in that putative defendant's application to set
aside the service. The putative defendant may submit that a lack of
subject-matter jurisdiction (or doubts about it) should have had the
effect that the exercise of the discretion to grant leave to serve out had
miscarried. That is not this case, obviously enough.
134 In deference to the respondent's arguments advanced, I will
consider the two cases particularly relied on by the respondent.
135 Firstly, the respondent cited Desfosses v Martinson
[2018] WASC 114 (Desfosses) to support its challenge to the Court's
subject-matter jurisdiction via its conditional appearance.
136 In Desfosses, the plaintiff had commenced a defamation action in
this Court against his sister who was a resident of the United States of
America. She was served in the US and filed a conditional appearance
in which she denied the jurisdiction of the Court.
137 It appears that the putative defendant was unrepresented and it
appears, although it is not entirely clear, that the primary basis of her
'challenge' to the Court's subject-matter jurisdiction was that this Court
was a clearly inappropriate forum.95
138 It may be noted in passing that an application made on forum
non-conveniens grounds is that the court should not exercise
jurisdiction because it is a clearly inappropriate forum. The application
pre-supposes that the court has both personal and subject-matter
jurisdiction, but that it should refrain from exercising it.
139 Le Miere J in Desfosses, on the papers, said it was 'arguable' that
on the defendant's application the Court could do one or some of the
following:
1. set aside the writ of summons;
2. set aside service of the writ of summons on the defendant;
94 I note that the Rules were significantly amended as and from 9 April 2024 on the necessity of prior leave
being granted
95 See Voth v Manildra Flour Mills [1990] HCA 55; (1990) 171 CLR 538 at 564 (Mason CJ, Deane,
Dawson & Gaudron JJ).
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3. discharge the order of the Master of 10 October 2017 which
granted leave to serve the writ on the defendant outside
Australia;
4. permanently stay the action; or
5. dismiss the defendant's applications as a result of which the
defendant's appearance would become unconditional.96
140 His Honour referred to the Court having jurisdiction in a civil
action either because the defendant had been served within the Court's
territorial jurisdiction or because the applicable 'long arm provisions' of
the Rules had been invoked: see [22].
141 Plainly, Le Miere J was considering the Court's 'personal'
jurisdiction over a defendant being established by proper service and
was not considering 'jurisdiction' in the sense of subject-matter
jurisdiction. The case does not, accordingly, assist the respondent in
my view.
142 His Honour held that this Court was not a clearly inappropriate
forum at [28] and then stated:
[29] The defendant has foreshadowed a number of affirmative
defences. This is not the time for the court to determine the
merits of the plaintiff's claim. The plaintiff has not filed a
statement of claim. At this time the court is only concerned
whether the court has jurisdiction to hear the case, whether it
should dismiss or stay the case on the ground that it is a clearly
inappropriate forum or, arguably, that the court should set aside
service of the writ on the grounds that the claim has insufficient
prospects of success.97
143 As to the last of those, at [31] his Honour cited the decision of
Agar v Hyde [2000] HCA 41; (2000) 201 CLR 552 [55] and [60]
(Gaudron, McHugh, Gummow and Hayne JJ) to the effect that service
may be set aside if 'the claim has insufficient prospects of success to
warrant an overseas defendant being put to the time, expense and
trouble of the litigation'.98
144 Le Miere J considered it was not appropriate to analyse the merits
of the case, save to determine whether there was such a sufficiently
high degree of certainty that the defendant would ultimately be
96 Desfosses [15].
97 Desfosses [29].
98 Desfosses [31].
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successful to warrant the dismissal of the proceedings at that
early stage.
145 Those observations were made in the context where the Court
(under the then Rules) had given the plaintiff leave to serve out of the
(territorial) jurisdiction of the Court. That may be contrasted with this
case, where respondent has been served 'regularly' within the Court's
(territorial) jurisdiction.
146 The respondent also cited Monteleone v The Owners of the Old
Soap Factory [2007] WASCA 79 [23]. There, McLure JA (as she then
was, and with whom Steytler P agreed) said:
[23] … The term jurisdiction in O 12 r 6 is used in the sense of
"authority to decide". A court's jurisdiction, in the sense of
authority to decide, derives from the fact of service of the
originating process: John Pfeiffer Pty Ltd v Rogerson (2000)
203 CLR 503 at 521 per Gleeson CJ, Gaudron, McHugh,
Gummow and Hayne JJ; Laurie v Carroll (1958) 98 CLR 310 at
323, 324. … In the absence of voluntary submission to
jurisdiction or waiver, a court has no jurisdiction over a
defendant unless and until the originating process is served.99
(emphasis in the original)
147 It is clear that her Honour was dealing with the Court's 'personal'
jurisdiction over a defendant established by valid service. The proper
service of a writ or an originating process, in and of itself, however says
nothing about the Court's subject-matter jurisdiction. As noted, it is trite
to say that even if a defendant or respondent unconditionally accepts
that service on them was proper and unconditionally appears, that does
not confer on the Court any subject-matter jurisdiction which the Court
otherwise does not have.
148 In short, a conditional appearance, in my view, is not to be filed
and relied upon to challenge this Court's subject-matter jurisdiction. It
is only appropriate to file a conditional appearance and then move on it
when the defendant seeks to challenge this Court's personal jurisdiction
over them.
149 In those circumstances, if I had reached a different conclusion on
the respondent's preliminary or threshold objection, I would have
dismissed the Respondent's Application so far as it invoked O 12 r 6(2)
of the Rules, and the conditional appearance would then have become
and operated as an unconditional appearance.
99 Monteleone v The Owners of the Old Soap Factory [23].
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150 I will hear the parties, as needs be, on the question of the final
form of the orders to be made and on the question of costs.
I certify that the preceding paragraph(s) comprise the reasons for decision of
the Supreme Court of Western Australia.
IF
Associate to the Hon Justice Howard
29 MAY 2026
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