Public Health and Wellbeing Regulations 2009
i
Public Health and Wellbeing Regulations 2009
S.R. No. 178/2009
TABLE OF PROVISIONS
Regulation Page
PART 1—PRELIMINARY 1
1 Objective 1
2 Authorising provisions 1
3 Commencement 1
4 Definitions 2
PART 2—PRESCRIBED SENIOR OFFICERS 7
5 Prescribed senior officers 7
PART 3—CONSULTATIVE COUNCILS 8
6 Meetings of Consultative Councils 8
7 Quorum of Consultative Council meetings 8
8 Fees Payable to members of a Consultative Council or
Consultative Council sub-committee 8
9 Prescribed Consultative Councils 9
10 Information for research 9
11 Time to provide birth report 10
PART 4—ARBOVIRUS INFECTION CONTROL 11
12 Prevention of mosquito breeding 11
PART 5—PRESCRIBED ACCOMMODATION AND
REGISTERED PREMISES 12
Division 1—Scope and registration 12
13 Prescribed accommodation 12
14 Exempt prescribed accommodation 12
15 Exempt registered premises 13
16 Applications for registration 15
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Division 2—Standards and requirements for prescribed
accommodation 16
17 Overcrowding in prescribed accommodation 16
18 Maintenance of prescribed accommodation 17
19 Cleanliness of prescribed accommodation 18
20 Water supplied to prescribed accommodation 18
21 Drinking water and prescribed accommodation 19
22 Discharge of sewage and waste water in prescribed
accommodation 19
23 Refuse receptacles and prescribed accommodation 19
24 Refuse disposal and prescribed accommodation 19
25 Toilet and bathing facilities in prescribed accommodation 20
26 Register of occupants of prescribed accommodation 20
27 Advertising and prescribed accommodation 20
Division 3—Standards and requirements for registered premises 21
28 Condition of registered premises 21
29 Condition of skin penetrating equipment and other articles
used at registered premises 21
30 Personal hygiene 22
31 Hand washing facilities at registered premises 22
32 Information to be provided to clients of registered premises 23
33 Information to be kept: premises that provide tattooing or
body piercing 23
Division 4—Prescribed conditions 24
34 Prescribed conditions 24
PART 6—AQUATIC FACILITIES 25
35 Exclusions—Part 6 25
36 Aquatic facility deemed to be open for use 25
37 Maintenance of aquatic facilities 25
38 Clarity of aquatic facility water 26
39 Treatment of aquatic facility water 26
40 Microbiological quality 27
41 Chemical testing 28
42 Filtering 29
43 Temperature 29
44 Cyanuric acid level 29
45 Total alkalinity level 29
46 Combined chlorine 30
47 Aquatic facility suspected or implicated as the source of
infection 30
48 Aquatic facility records 30
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PART 7—COOLING TOWER SYSTEMS AND LEGIONELLA
RISKS IN CERTAIN PREMISES 32
Division 1—Cooling Tower Systems 32
49 Fees for applications to register or renew registration of a
cooling tower system 32
50 Secretary may waive fees for registration or renewal of
registration of cooling tower system 32
51 Risk management plans for cooling tower system 32
52 Cooling tower system risk management plan audits 33
53 Maintenance of cooling tower systems 34
54 Cooling tower water quality and treatment 34
55 Disinfection, cleaning and re-disinfection of cooling tower
water 34
56 Routine service and testing of cooling towers 35
57 High heterotrophic colony count detected in cooling tower
system 35
58 Legionella detected in cooling tower system 39
59 Cooling tower system suspected or implicated as the source of
infection 40
60 Records to be kept in respect of cooling tower systems 41
Division 2—Legionella risks in certain premises 41
61 Application of this Division 41
62 Legionella risk management in certain places 42
63 Legionella detected in a water delivery system 42
64 Water delivery system suspected or implicated as the source
of infection 42
PART 8—PEST CONTROL 43
65 Pest control licence fees 43
66 Qualifications for pest control licences 43
67 Qualifications for certain existing pest control licence holders 43
68 Courses of training for supervised pest control licence holders 44
69 Records 44
PART 9—MANAGEMENT AND CONTROL OF INFECTIOUS
DISEASES, MICRO-ORGANISMS AND MEDICAL
CONDITIONS 46
Division 1—Notifications 46
70 Notifiable conditions and micro-organisms 46
71 Notification of notifiable conditions by medical practitioners 46
72 Notification of notifiable conditions by pathology services 46
73 Notification of micro-organisms—laboratories and food
premises 48
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Division 2—Notification and directions 48
74 Secretary may notify Council 48
75 Secretary may give written directions 48
76 Powers of authorised officer 48
Division 3—HIV tests 49
77 Information to be given to a person requesting a test for HIV 49
78 Positive test results 49
79 Classes of persons who may provide counselling about the
risk of transmission 50
Division 4—Immunisation 51
80 Definition of immunised 51
81 Vaccine-preventable diseases 51
82 Retention of immunisation status certificates at primary schools 51
83 Access to immunisation status certificates 52
84 Provision of information 52
85 Primary school or children's services centre exclusion 53
Division 5—Tissue donations 53
86 Prescribed period 53
Division 6—Information to sex workers and clients 54
87 Information to sex workers and clients 54
PART 10—INFRINGEMENTS 55
88 Infringements 55
__________________
SCHEDULES 56
SCHEDULE 1—Prescribed Consultative Councils 56
SCHEDULE 2—Approved Courses and Qualifications 57
SCHEDULE 3—Courses of Training and Units of Competency 60
SCHEDULE 4—Notifiable Conditions 61
SCHEDULE 5—Micro-Organisms—Isolated or Detected in Food
or Drinking Water Supplies 64
SCHEDULE 6—Notification by Medical Practitioners 65
Form 1—For Group A and Group B Notifiable Conditions—
Strictly Confidential 65
Form 2—For Group C Notifiable Conditions—Strictly Confidential 67
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Form 3—For Group D Notification for HIV—Strictly Confidential 68
Form 4—For Group D Notification for AIDS—Strictly Confidential 71
SCHEDULE 7—Minimum Period of Exclusion from Primary Schools
and Children's Services Centres for Infectious Diseases
Cases and Contacts 75
SCHEDULE 8—Infringements 80
═══════════════
ENDNOTES 83
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1
STATUTORY RULES 2009
S.R. No. 178/2009
Public Health and Wellbeing Act 2008
Public Health and Wellbeing Regulations 2009
The Governor in Council makes the following Regulations:
Dated: 15 December 2009
Responsible Minister:
DANIEL ANDREWS
Minister for Health
TOBY HALLIGAN
Clerk of the Executive Council
PART 1—PRELIMINARY
1 Objective
The objective of these Regulations is to prescribe
matters required or permitted to be prescribed or
necessary to be prescribed to give effect to the
Public Health and Wellbeing Act 2008.
2 Authorising provisions
These Regulations are made under sections 232,
233, 234, 235, 236, 237, 238 and 239 of the
Public Health and Wellbeing Act 2008.
3 Commencement
These Regulations come into operation on
1 January 2010.
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4 Definitions
In these Regulations—
aged care has the same meaning as in Schedule 1
of the Aged Care Act 1997 of the
Commonwealth;
article means any appliance, instrument,
container, applicator, cosmetic, dye, dressing
or thing used on a living human being;
aquatic facility includes spa pools and swimming
pools;
biocide means a physical or chemical agent
capable of killing micro-organisms;
body piercing has the same meaning as it has in
section 43(1) of the Summary Offences Act
1966;
commercial vehicle wash means a business where
cars, trucks and other vehicles are washed;
correctional services has the same meaning as it
has in section 3(1) of the Corrections Act
1986;
disinfect means to carry out a process which—
(a) is intended to kill or remove pathogenic
micro-organisms; and
(b) in the case of a cooling tower system,
consists of dosing the water of the
system with—
(i) a chlorine-based compound,
equivalent to at least 10 mg/L of
free chlorine for at least one hour,
while maintaining the pH of the
water between 7·0 and 7·6; or
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(ii) a bromine-based compound,
equivalent to at least 20 mg/L of
free bromine for at least one hour,
while maintaining the pH of the
water between 7·0 and 8·5;
drinking water has the same meaning as it has in
section 3 of the Safe Drinking Water Act
2003;
food premises has the same meaning as it has in
section 4(1) of the Food Act 1984;
food vending machine has the same meaning as it
has in section 4(1) of the Food Act 1984;
heterotrophic colony count means an estimate of
the number of the viable units of bacteria per
millilitre of water;
health service establishment has the same
meaning as it has in section 3(1) of the
Health Services Act 1988;
holiday camp means any house, building or
structure, whether temporary or permanent,
which is used for the accommodation of
student groups, youth groups or family
groups for holiday or recreational purposes;
hostel means any house, building or structure,
whether temporary or permanent, which is
used primarily for the accommodation of
travellers;
hotel includes a residential hotel and any
residential premises in respect of which a
general licence or on-premises licence is
granted under the Liquor Control Reform
Act 1998;
laboratory means a laboratory accredited by the
National Association of Testing Authorities;
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Legionella means bacteria belonging to the genus
Legionella;
registered funded agency has the same meaning
as it has in section 3(1) of the Health
Services Act 1988;
residential accommodation means any house,
building, or other structure used as a place of
abode where a person or persons can live on
payment of consideration to the proprietor
but does not include—
(a) a hotel or motel; or
(b) a hostel; or
(c) a student dormitory; or
(d) a holiday camp; or
(e) a rooming house;
responsible person means the person who owns,
manages or controls a cooling tower system,
water delivery system or aquatic facility;
rooming house means a building in which there is
one or more rooms available for occupancy
on payment of rent in which the total number
of people who may occupy that room or
those rooms is not less than 4;
spa pool means an artificially constructed pool to
which members of the public have access
which—
(a) has facilities for circulating heated
turbulent water; and
(b) is used or intended to be used for
passive recreational or therapeutic
bathing;
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student dormitory means any dormitory, student
hostel, hall of residence or residential college
for the accommodation of students which is
controlled by or operated under an
arrangement with or affiliated with—
(a) an institution providing educational
services for children of compulsory
school age within the meaning of
section 1.1.3(1) of the Education and
Training Reform Act 2006; or
(b) adult, community and further education
services; or
(c) an autonomous college or adult
education institution within the
meaning of those definitions in section
1.1.3(1) of the Education and
Training Reform Act 2006;
swimming pool means an artificially constructed
pool to which members of the public have
access which—
(a) is used or intended to be used for
swimming, diving, recreational or
therapeutic bathing, exercise, paddling
or wading; or
(b) is used or intended to be used as a
receiving pool of a waterslide;
temporary crisis accommodation means
temporary crisis accommodation provided on
a non profit basis by an agency which
receives homelessness support funding from
the Government of Victoria;
the Act means the Public Health and Wellbeing
Act 2008;
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water delivery system includes any shower
plumbing, bath, pipes, water heaters, bathing
facilities, water storage tanks or vehicle
washing equipment used to store, deliver,
transmit, treat or mix water;
water supplier has the same meaning as it has in
section 3 of the Safe Drinking Water Act
2003.
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Part 2—Prescribed Senior Officers
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PART 2—PRESCRIBED SENIOR OFFICERS
5 Prescribed senior officers
For the purposes of section 22(1)(b) of the Act,
Senior Medical Advisers employed by the
Department of Health are prescribed senior
officers.
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Part 3—Consultative Councils
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PART 3—CONSULTATIVE COUNCILS
6 Meetings of Consultative Councils
For the purposes of section 35 of the Act—
(a) meetings of a Consultative Council must be
held at least every 3 months;
(b) the date and time of a meeting of a
Consultative Council must be fixed—
(i) by resolution of the Consultative
Council; or
(ii) if no date and time is fixed by
resolution, by the Chairperson.
7 Quorum of Consultative Council meetings
For the purposes of section 35 of the Act—
(a) the quorum for meetings of a Consultative
Council is more than 50 percent of the
number of members of the Consultative
Council;
(b) the quorum for meetings of a Consultative
Council sub-committee is more than
50 percent of the members of the
Consultative Council sub-committee.
8 Fees Payable to members of a Consultative Council
or Consultative Council sub-committee
For the purpose of section 233 of the Act, the fees
payable to an eligible member of a Consultative
Council or eligible member of a Consultative
Council sub-committee are—
(a) 20 fee units for every half day; or
(b) 40 fee units for every full day.
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9 Prescribed Consultative Councils
For the purposes of Division 2 of Part 4 of the
Act, the Consultative Councils specified in
Schedule 1 are prescribed.
10 Information for research
(1) This regulation applies, in the case of—
(a) CCOPMM, for the purpose of carrying out
its functions under section 46 of the Act; or
(b) a prescribed Consultative Council, for the
purpose of carrying out its functions under
section 38 of the Act.
(2) If this regulation applies, a Consultative Council
may make available to researchers any
information—
(a) approved by CCOPMM, and collected by the
perinatal data collection unit conducted by
CCOPMM for the purpose of section 46(1)
of the Act; and
(b) that is not capable of establishing the identity
of any person in respect of whom
information has been collected.
(3) Despite subregulation (2), information that
identifies a person may be given by the
Consultative Council to a researcher—
(a) if written permission has been given by the
person identified in the document; and
(b) if possible, written permission has been
given by either the medical practitioner or
midwife who was in attendance at the birth;
and
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(c) where the birth occurred in a health service,
written permission has been given by the
chief executive officer or proprietor of the
health service.
11 Time to provide birth report
For the purposes of section 48 of the Act, the
prescribed period is 90 days after the birth.
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Part 4—Arbovirus Infection Control
Public Health and Wellbeing Regulations 2009
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PART 4—ARBOVIRUS INFECTION CONTROL
12 Prevention of mosquito breeding
(1) For the purposes of section 235(a) of the Act, in
order to prevent the breeding of mosquitoes which
may be vectors of arboviruses, an authorised
officer may give written directions to the owner or
occupier of any premises to remove, or take steps
to avoid, any condition on those premises
conducive to the breeding of mosquitoes.
(2) A person to whom a direction is given under
subregulation (1) must comply with the direction.
Penalty: 20 penalty units.
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Part 5—Prescribed Accommodation and Registered Premises
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PART 5—PRESCRIBED ACCOMMODATION AND
REGISTERED PREMISES
Division 1—Scope and registration
13 Prescribed accommodation
The following classes of accommodation are
prescribed to be prescribed accommodation for
the purposes of section 3 of the Act—
(a) residential accommodation;
(b) hotels and motels;
(c) hostels;
(d) student dormitories;
(e) holiday camps;
(f) rooming houses.
14 Exempt prescribed accommodation
The following are prescribed not to be prescribed
accommodation for the purposes of these
regulations—
(a) a house under the exclusive occupation of
the occupier; or
(b) a self-contained flat under the exclusive
occupation of the occupier consisting of a
suite of rooms that—
(i) forms a portion or portions of a
building; and
(ii) includes kitchen, bathroom and toilet
facilities; and
(iii) forms a self-contained residence; or
(c) temporary crisis accommodation; or
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(d) a health or residential service within the
meaning of section 3(1) of the Residential
Tenancies Act 1997; or
(e) a nursing home within the meaning of the
National Health Act 1953 of the
Commonwealth; or
(f) any retirement village within the meaning of
section 3(1) of the Retirement Villages Act
1986; or
(g) any house, building or structure to which
Part 4 of the Residential Tenancies Act
1997 applies; or
(h) any vessel, vehicle, tent or caravan; or
(i) premises in which, other than the family of
the proprietor, not more than 5 persons are
accommodated, and which is not a rooming
house.
15 Exempt registered premises
For the purposes of section 69(2) of the Act, the
following businesses and classes of businesses are
prescribed to be exempt—
(a) the practice of a person registered in the
dentists' division of the register kept by the
Dental Practice Board of Victoria under the
Health Professions Registration Act 2005;
(b) the practice of a person registered as a
medical practitioner registered by the
Medical Practitioners Board of Victoria
under the Health Professions Registration
Act 2005;
(c) the practice of a person registered as a nurse
by the Nurses Board of Victoria under the
Health Professions Registration Act 2005;
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(d) the practice of a person registered as a
podiatrist by the Podiatrists Registration
Board of Victoria under the Health
Professions Registration Act 2005;
(e) the practice of a person registered as an
acupuncturist under the Health Professions
Registration Act 2005;
(f) the business of a collection centre for which
approval has been granted under section
23DNBA of the Health Insurance Act 1973
of the Commonwealth;
(g) the business of a service where human tissue,
human fluids or human body products are
subjected to analysis for the purposes of the
prevention, diagnosis or treatment of disease
in human beings and that is not primarily a
pathology service;
(h) the business of a mobile hairdresser, except
in relation to the principal place of business
of the hairdresser;
(i) the business of a mobile beauty therapist,
except in relation to the principal place of
business of the mobile beauty therapist;
(j) the business of a public hospital,
denominational hospital, private hospital,
privately-operated hospital, public health
service, day procedure centre, multi purpose
service or registered community health
centre, within the meaning of section 3(1) of
the Health Services Act 1988.
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16 Applications for registration
For the purpose of section 71(c) of the Act, the
prescribed particulars are—
(a) for an application to register prescribed
accommodation—
(i) a plan of the premises drawn to a scale
of not less that 1:100 and showing the
proposed use of each room;
(ii) the date of the application for
registration;
(iii) the name and address of the proprietor;
(iv) the address of the premises;
(v) the date of the registration;
(b) for an application to renew the registration of
prescribed accommodation—
(i) the date of renewal;
(ii) any conditions on the grant of
registration or renewal;
(c) for an application to transfer the registration
of prescribed accommodation—
(i) the date of transfer of registration;
(ii) the name and address of the person to
whom the registration is transferred;
(iii) the address of the premises to which the
registration is transferred;
(d) for an application concerning registered
premises—
(i) the date of the application for
registration;
(ii) the name and address of the proprietor;
(iii) the business trading name (if any);
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(iv) the address of the premises;
(v) the date of registration;
(vi) the registration number (if any);
(vii) the date of renewal of registration
(if applicable);
(viii) any conditions on the grant of
registration, renewal of registration or
transfer of registration (if applicable);
(ix) the name and address of the person to
whom the registration is transferred
(if applicable).
Division 2—Standards and requirements for prescribed
accommodation
17 Overcrowding in prescribed accommodation
(1) A proprietor of prescribed accommodation must
comply with this regulation in relation to the
maximum number of persons permitted to be
accommodated in each bedroom in the prescribed
accommodation.
Penalty: 20 penalty units.
(2) A proprietor of prescribed accommodation must
not permit a room in the prescribed
accommodation to be used as a bedroom if it has a
floor area of less than 7·5 square metres.
Penalty: 20 penalty units.
(3) If persons are accommodated in prescribed
accommodation for a period of more than 31 days,
the maximum number of persons permitted to
occupy a bedroom in respect of the period after
the thirty-first day is—
(a) in the case of a bedroom with a floor area of
less than 12 square metres, one person;
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(b) in the case of a bedroom with a floor area of
12 square metres or more, 2 persons and an
additional person for every 4 square metres
of floor area that exceeds 12 square metres.
(4) If persons are accommodated in prescribed
accommodation, other than a holiday camp, for a
period of 31 days or less, the maximum number of
persons permitted to occupy a bedroom is—
(a) in the case of a bedroom with a floor area of
less than 10 square metres, 2 persons;
(b) in the case of a bedroom with a floor area of
10 square metres or more, 3 persons and an
additional person for every 2 square metres
of floor area that exceeds 10 square metres.
(5) Subject to subregulation (2), a proprietor of a
holiday camp must provide at least 2 square
metres of floor area in a bedroom for each person
who is accommodated for a period of 31 days or
less.
(6) For the purposes of this regulation—
(a) one child under the age of 3 years is not
counted as a person;
(b) two children under the age of 3 years are
counted as one person;
(c) floor area includes the area occupied by any
cupboard or other built-in furniture, fixture
or fitting but does not include any area
occupied by any bathroom or toilet in, or
attached to, the bedroom.
18 Maintenance of prescribed accommodation
A proprietor of prescribed accommodation must
maintain the prescribed accommodation and all
bedrooms, toilets, bathrooms, laundries, kitchens,
living rooms and any common areas provided
with the accommodation—
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(a) in good working order; and
(b) in a clean, sanitary and hygienic condition;
and
(c) in a good state of repair.
Penalty: 20 penalty units.
19 Cleanliness of prescribed accommodation
(1) In addition to the requirement under regulation
18(b), a proprietor of prescribed accommodation
must ensure that each bedroom and any toilet or
bathroom attached to the bedroom is cleaned after
the bedroom is vacated and before its re-use by
another occupier.
Penalty: 20 penalty units.
(2) A proprietor of prescribed accommodation must
ensure that all bed linen provided with the
accommodation is changed with clean linen—
(a) at least weekly; and
(b) after the accommodation is vacated and
before its re-use by another occupier.
Penalty: 20 penalty units.
20 Water supplied to prescribed accommodation
(1) A proprietor of prescribed accommodation must
provide a continuous and adequate supply of
water to all toilet, bathing, kitchen, laundry and
drinking water facilities.
Penalty: 20 penalty units.
(2) A proprietor of prescribed accommodation must
provide a continuous and adequate supply of hot
water to all bathing, laundry and kitchen facilities.
Penalty: 20 penalty units.
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21 Drinking water and prescribed accommodation
A proprietor of prescribed accommodation must
ensure that drinking water supplied by the
proprietor to another person is fit for human
consumption if the drinking water was not
supplied to the proprietor by a water supplier.
Penalty: 20 penalty units.
22 Discharge of sewage and waste water in prescribed
accommodation
A proprietor of prescribed accommodation must
ensure that all sewage and waste water is
discharged—
(a) to a reticulated sewerage system; or
(b) to a wastewater treatment system permitted
under the Environment Protection Act
1970.
Penalty: 20 penalty units.
23 Refuse receptacles and prescribed accommodation
A proprietor of prescribed accommodation must—
(a) provide sufficient vermin-proof receptacles
at the prescribed accommodation for the
collection and storage of all rubbish; and
(b) ensure that the receptacles are regularly
cleaned.
Penalty: 20 penalty units.
24 Refuse disposal and prescribed accommodation
A proprietor of prescribed accommodation must
ensure that all refuse at the accommodation is
regularly removed by means of a refuse collection
service provided by the local Council or a private
contractor engaged by the proprietor.
Penalty: 20 penalty units.
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25 Toilet and bathing facilities in prescribed
accommodation
A proprietor of prescribed accommodation must
provide at least one toilet, one bath or shower and
one wash basin for every 10 persons or fraction of
that number of persons occupying the
accommodation.
Penalty: 20 penalty units.
26 Register of occupants of prescribed accommodation
(1) A proprietor of prescribed accommodation must
keep a register recording—
(a) the names and addresses of persons
occupying the accommodation; and
(b) the dates of their arrival and departure.
Penalty: 20 penalty units.
(2) A proprietor is exempted from compliance with
subregulation (1), if the proprietor is required
under any other Act or regulation to keep a similar
register.
(3) The proprietor must retain the register referred to
in subregulation (1) or (2) for at least 12 months
after the date of the last entry in the register.
Penalty: 20 penalty units.
27 Advertising and prescribed accommodation
A proprietor of prescribed accommodation must
not state or cause to be stated in any
advertisement, notice or sign issued or put up in
relation to the accommodation, that the premises
were registered or approved for any class of
accommodation other than that set out on the
certificate of registration.
Penalty: 20 penalty units.
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Division 3—Standards and requirements for registered
premises
28 Condition of registered premises
The proprietor or occupier of premises where a
registered premises is located must ensure that the
premises are kept in a clean, sanitary and hygienic
condition.
Penalty: 20 penalty units.
29 Condition of skin penetrating equipment and other
articles used at registered premises
(1) The proprietor or occupier of premises where a
registered premises is located must ensure that—
(a) an article intended to be used for penetrating
the skin of a person is sterile at the time of
use; and
(b) an article which has penetrated the skin of a
person or is contaminated with blood is—
(i) destroyed or disposed of immediately
in such a manner as to prevent the
infection of any other person; or
(ii) sterilized in accordance with
subregulation (2) before it is used on
any other person; and
(c) any article is clean before it is used on a
person.
Penalty: 20 penalty units.
(2) An article is sterilized for the purposes of
subregulation (1)(b)(ii) if the article has been—
(a) thoroughly cleaned and rinsed, then
sterilized by the use of steam under
pressure—
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(i) at 121°C for 15 minutes at a pressure of
103 kilopascals; or
(ii) at 126°C for 10 minutes at a pressure of
138 kilopascals; or
(iii) at 132°C for 4 minutes at a pressure of
186 kilopascals; or
(iv) at 134°C for 3 minutes at a pressure of
203 kilopascals; or
(b) thoroughly cleaned and rinsed, then
sterilized by the use of dry heat at 160°C for
a minimum of 120 minutes; or
(c) taken from a sealed container which bears a
label stating that the contents are sterile.
30 Personal hygiene
The proprietor or occupier of premises where a
registered premises is located must ensure that
each person in the business who is engaged in
carrying out any hairdressing, colonic irrigation or
beauty therapy or similar process on any other
person or any tattooing, ear piercing or other
process involving the penetration of the skin in a
living human being—
(a) is in a clean condition, including their hands;
and
(b) has no exposed cuts, abrasions or wounds—
before carrying out the process.
Penalty: 20 penalty units.
31 Hand washing facilities at registered premises
The proprietor or occupier of premises where a
registered premises is located must ensure that
easily accessible hand washing facilities are
available for use by staff.
Penalty: 20 penalty units.
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32 Information to be provided to clients of registered
premises
(1) The proprietor or occupier of premises where a
registered premises is located that provides
tattooing, ear piercing, body piercing or any other
process involving the penetration of the skin in a
living human being must ensure, before such a
process is provided to a person, that written
information is provided directly to the person
about the transmission of infectious diseases
associated with the process.
Penalty: 20 penalty units.
(2) The proprietor or occupier of premises where a
registered premises is located that provides
tattooing, ear piercing, body piercing or any other
process involving the penetration of the skin in a
living human being must take reasonable steps to
ensure that the information about the transmission
of infectious diseases provided to a person under
subregulation (1) is not misleading.
Penalty: 20 penalty units.
33 Information to be kept: premises that provide
tattooing or body piercing
(1) The proprietor or occupier of premises where a
registered premises is located that provides
tattooing or body piercing must ensure that the
name, address and telephone number of each
client is recorded and stored at the premises for a
period of 12 months following the date of the last
body piercing or tattooing procedure undertaken
by the client at the premises.
Penalty: 20 penalty units.
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(2) This regulation does not apply to a business that is
prescribed as an exempt business by
regulation 15.
Division 4—Prescribed conditions
34 Prescribed conditions
For the purposes of section 75(1)(c) of the Act,
the following are conditions which apply to a
class of registration—
(a) it is a condition on the registration of all
prescribed accommodation that proprietors
required to keep a register under regulation
26(1) must take all reasonable steps to
protect the information in the register;
(b) it is a condition on the registration of all
premises required to be registered under
section 69 of the Act upon which a business
involving tattooing or body piercing is
conducted that a person required to keep
records under regulation 33(1) must take
reasonable steps to protect the information in
the records.
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Part 6—Aquatic Facilities
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25
PART 6—AQUATIC FACILITIES
35 Exclusions—Part 6
Despite regulation 4, in this Part, an aquatic
facility does not include—
(a) a whirlpool bath or spa bath that is, or
intended to be, emptied of water after each
individual use; or
(b) a dam, natural watercourse or ocean pool
that is used for swimming; or
(c) a spring water pool that has a turnover rate of
at least 25 percent of the entire volume of the
water in the pool to waste each hour.
36 Aquatic facility deemed to be open for use
For the purposes of regulations 37 to 48, an
aquatic facility is deemed to be open for use—
(a) if any door or gate provided for access to the
aquatic facility is open or unlocked; and
(b) if there are no conspicuous signs advising
users that the aquatic facility is closed.
37 Maintenance of aquatic facilities
The responsible person must ensure that any
aquatic facility that the responsible person owns,
manages or controls is maintained and tested in
the manner set out in regulations 38 to 48.
Penalty: 20 penalty units.
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38 Clarity of aquatic facility water
The responsible person must ensure that when an
aquatic facility is open for use, the water in the
aquatic facility is maintained in a clear condition
such that the floor of the aquatic facility or any
lane marking or object placed on the floor of the
aquatic facility is clearly visible when viewed
from either side of the aquatic facility.
Penalty: 20 penalty units.
39 Treatment of aquatic facility water
The responsible person must ensure that when an
aquatic facility is open for use the water in the
aquatic facility is treated by means of a chlorine or
bromine based disinfectant in accordance with the
parameters specified in Table 1 or Table 2 to this
regulation.
Penalty: 20 penalty units.
TABLE 1
CHLORINATED AQUATIC FACILITIES
Swimming
pool where
cyanuric acid
is NOT used
Swimming
pool where
cyanuric acid
is used Spa Pool
Free
Chlorine
(mg/L)
minimum
1 2 3
Total
Chlorine
maximum
(mg/L)
10 10 10
pH 7·2–7·8 7·2–7·8 7·2–7·8
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TABLE 2
BROMINATED AQUATIC FACILITIES
Swimming Pool Spa Pool
Free bromine (mg/L)
minimum
2 6
Total bromine
(mg/L) (maximum)
8 8
pH 7·2–8·0 7·2–8·0
40 Microbiological quality
(1) The responsible person must ensure that when an
aquatic facility is open for use, the
microbiological standard of the water in the
aquatic facility is maintained within the following
parameters—
(a) a heterotrophic colony count less than
100 colony forming units per millilitre;
(b) coliform bacteria is not detected in
100 millilitres;
(c) Pseudomonas aeruginosa is not detected in
100 millilitres.
Penalty: 20 penalty units.
(2) Within 24 hours of receiving a report that any
sample of water taken from an aquatic facility and
delivered to a laboratory for testing has not
complied with subregulation (1), the responsible
person must ensure that the following steps are
taken—
(a) the water in the aquatic facility must be
shock dosed with chlorine or bromine;
(b) the water treatment program and
maintenance program of the aquatic facility
must be reviewed;
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(c) any faults must be corrected and any changes
necessary to prevent a re-occurrence of those
faults must be implemented;
(d) a further sample of the water in the aquatic
facility must be taken and delivered to a
laboratory for testing to assess compliance
with the microbiological parameters in
subregulation (1).
(3) If, after following the procedure in subregulation
(2), the microbiological standard of the water in
the aquatic facility fails to meet the
microbiological parameters specified in
subregulation (1), the responsible person must
ensure that—
(a) the steps in subregulation (2) are repeated
until 2 consecutive water samples taken
approximately one week apart comply with
the parameters specified in subregulation (1);
or
(b) the aquatic facility is closed until the
problem has been remedied.
Penalty: 20 penalty units.
41 Chemical testing
The responsible person must ensure that when an
aquatic facility is open for use the water in the
aquatic facility is tested—
(a) at four hourly intervals for—
(i) free chlorine and total chlorine
(if chlorine used);
(ii) free bromine and total bromine
(if bromine used);
(iii) pH;
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(b) at weekly intervals for total alkalinity;
(c) at monthly intervals for cyanuric acid
(if used).
Penalty: 20 penalty units.
42 Filtering
The responsible person must ensure that when an
aquatic facility is open for use the water in the
aquatic facility is effectively filtered so that all
visible extraneous matter is removed from the
water.
Penalty: 20 penalty units.
43 Temperature
The responsible person must ensure that when an
aquatic facility is open for use the water in the
aquatic facility does not exceed 40 degrees
Celsius.
Penalty: 20 penalty units.
44 Cyanuric acid level
The responsible person must ensure that when an
aquatic facility is open for use the level of
cyanuric acid (if used) in the water in the aquatic
facility does not exceed 100mg/L.
Penalty: 20 penalty units.
45 Total alkalinity level
The responsible person must ensure that when an
aquatic facility is open for use the total alkalinity
level in the water in the aquatic facility is
maintained above 60mg/L.
Penalty: 20 penalty units.
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46 Combined chlorine
The responsible person must ensure that when an
aquatic facility is open for use the combined
chlorine of the water in the aquatic facility is—
(a) at all times less than the free chlorine
residual; and
(b) measured to be less than 1 mg/L at least once
in every 24 hours of operation.
Penalty: 20 penalty units.
47 Aquatic facility suspected or implicated as the
source of infection
If the Secretary has informed the responsible
person that the water in an aquatic facility is
suspected or implicated as the source of infection
in a case or outbreak of Legionellosis, that person
must ensure that—
(a) a water sample from the aquatic facility is
promptly taken and delivered to a laboratory
for testing and reporting on for Legionella;
and
(b) the aquatic facility is disinfected in
accordance with any reasonable directions
given to that person by the Secretary.
Penalty: 20 penalty units.
48 Aquatic facility records
The responsible person must ensure that—
(a) records are kept in respect of each aquatic
facility that records details of—
(i) all results of tests and monitoring
required under regulation 41; and
(ii) all corrective activities undertaken in
relation to the water in the aquatic
facility; and
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(b) the records are kept at the premises where
the aquatic facility is located for 12 months
from the date on which the record was made.
Penalty: 20 penalty units.
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Part 7—Cooling Tower Systems and Legionella Risks in Certain Premises
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PART 7—COOLING TOWER SYSTEMS AND LEGIONELLA
RISKS IN CERTAIN PREMISES
Division 1—Cooling Tower Systems
49 Fees for applications to register or renew
registration of a cooling tower system
For the purposes of section 81 of the Act, the
prescribed fee for an application to register or
renew registration of a cooling tower system is the
amount calculated by multiplying the number of
cooling towers in the cooling tower system by the
number of fee units applicable for each period of
registration—
(a) one year, 7·5 fee units;
(b) 2 years, 14 fee units;
(c) 3 years, 20·5 fee units.
50 Secretary may waive fees for registration or renewal
of registration of cooling tower system
The Secretary may waive the fee or part of a fee
for an application to register or renew registration
of a cooling tower system for the purpose of
synchronising periods of registration.
51 Risk management plans for cooling tower system
For the purposes of section 91 of the Act, risk
management plans must address the risks
associated with—
(a) stagnant water, including the lack of water
recirculation in a cooling tower system and
the presence of dead-end pipework and other
fittings in a cooling tower system; and
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(b) nutrient growth, including—
(i) the presence of biofilm, algae and
protozoa in a cooling tower system; and
(ii) water temperature within a range that
will support rapid growth of micro-
organisms in a cooling tower system;
and
(iii) the exposure of the water of a cooling
tower system to direct sunlight; and
(c) poor water quality, including the presence of
solids, Legionella and high levels of micro-
organisms in a cooling tower system; and
(d) deficiencies in a cooling tower system,
including deficiencies in the physical design,
condition and maintenance of the system;
and
(e) the location of, and access to, a cooling
tower or cooling tower system, including the
potential for environmental contamination of
the system and the potential for exposure of
people to the aerosols of the system; and
(f) any matters included in a report delivered to
the owner of the land for the purposes of
section 92(2)(c) of the Act.
52 Cooling tower system risk management plan audits
The documents prescribed for the purposes of
section 93(4) of the Act are—
(a) the risk management plan prepared in
accordance with Division 1 of Part 7 of the
Act; and
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(b) the documents that contain the details of all
repair, maintenance and testing work carried
out on the cooling tower system within the
period to be audited by the auditor.
53 Maintenance of cooling tower systems
The responsible person must ensure that any
cooling tower system that the responsible person
owns, manages or controls is maintained and
tested in the manner set out in this Part, unless the
system is shut down, or is otherwise not in use.
Penalty: 20 penalty units.
54 Cooling tower water quality and treatment
The responsible person must ensure that the water
of the cooling tower system is continuously
treated with—
(a) one or more biocides to effectively control
the growth of micro-organisms, including
Legionella; and
(b) chemicals or other agents to minimise scale
formation, corrosion and fouling; and
(c) a bio-dispersant.
Penalty: 20 penalty units.
55 Disinfection, cleaning and re-disinfection of cooling
tower water
The responsible person must ensure that—
(a) a chlorine-compatible bio-dispersant is
added to the recirculating water of the
cooling tower system; and
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(b) the system is then disinfected, cleaned and
re-disinfected—
(i) immediately prior to initial start up
following commissioning, or any shut
down period of greater than one month;
and
(ii) at intervals not exceeding 6 months.
Penalty: 20 penalty units.
56 Routine service and testing of cooling towers
(1) The responsible person must ensure that the
cooling tower system is serviced at least once
each month to check that the system is operating
without defects.
Penalty: 20 penalty units.
(2) The responsible person must ensure that at least
once each month a sample of the recirculating
water of the cooling tower system is taken and is
delivered to a laboratory for testing and reporting
on for heterotrophic colony count.
Penalty: 20 penalty units.
(3) The responsible person must ensure that at least
once every three months a sample of the
recirculating water of the cooling tower system is
taken and delivered to a laboratory for testing and
reporting for Legionella.
Penalty: 20 penalty units.
57 High heterotrophic colony count detected in cooling
tower system
(1) Within 24 hours of receiving a report from a
laboratory that any sample of water taken from the
cooling tower system has a heterotrophic colony
count exceeding 200 000 colony forming units per
millilitre, the responsible person must ensure that
the following procedure is implemented—
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(a) the water of the system must be manually
treated with additional quantities of biocide
or with an alternative biocide; and
(b) the water treatment program, tower operation
and maintenance program of the system must
be reviewed; and
(c) any faults must be corrected; and
(d) any changes necessary to prevent a
re-occurrence of those faults must be
implemented.
(2) Between 2 and 7 days after the water has been
treated under subregulation (1), the responsible
person must ensure that a further sample of the
recirculating water of the system is taken and is
delivered to a laboratory for testing and reporting
on for heterotrophic colony count.
Penalty: 20 penalty units.
(3) Within 24 hours of receiving a report from a
laboratory that a sample taken in accordance with
subregulation (2) has a heterotrophic colony count
exceeding 200 000 colony forming units per
millilitre, the responsible person must ensure that
the water of the cooling tower system is
disinfected.
Penalty: 20 penalty units.
(4) Between 2 and 7 days after the water has been
disinfected under subregulation (3), the
responsible person must ensure that a further
sample of the recirculating water of the cooling
tower system is taken and is delivered to a
laboratory for testing and reporting on for
heterotrophic colony count.
Penalty: 20 penalty units.
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(5) If, after following the procedure in subregulations
(1), (2), (3) and (4), the heterotrophic colony
count still exceeds 200 000 colony forming units
per millilitre, the responsible person must—
(a) ensure that the steps in subregulations (3)
and (4) are repeated until the heterotrophic
colony count does not exceed 200 000
colony forming units per millilitre in
2 consecutive water samples taken
approximately one week apart; or
(b) close the cooling tower system until the
problem has been remedied.
Penalty: 20 penalty units.
(6) The responsible person is not required to comply
with subregulations (1) to (5) if—
(a) during the period between the sample being
taken for the purpose of regulation 56(2) and
the receipt of a report from a laboratory
indicating that the cooling tower system has
a heterotrophic colony count exceeding
200 000 colony forming units per millilitre,
the system was manually treated with
additional quantities of biocide or an
alternative biocide; and
(b) within 72 hours of receiving the report that
any sample of water taken from the cooling
tower system has a heterotrophic colony
count exceeding 200 000 colony forming
units per millilitre, the responsible person—
(i) reviews the water treatment program,
tower, operation and maintenance
program; and
(ii) corrects any faults and makes changes
necessary to prevent a re-occurrence of
those faults; and
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(c) within 7 days of receiving the report in
subregulation (6)(b), the responsible person
ensures that a further sample of the
recirculating water of the system is taken and
is delivered to a laboratory for testing and
reporting on for heterotrophic colony count;
Penalty: 20 penalty units.
(d) within 24 hours of receiving a report that a
sample taken in accordance with
subregulation (6)(c) has a heterotrophic
colony count exceeding 200 000 colony
forming units per millilitre, the responsible
person—
(i) ensures the water in the cooling tower
system is disinfected; and
(ii) between 2 and 7 days after the water
has been disinfected in accordance with
paragraph (i), ensures that a further
sample of the recirculating water of the
system is taken and is delivered to a
laboratory for testing and reporting on
for heterotrophic colony count;
Penalty: 20 penalty units.
(e) after following the procedure in
subregulation (6)(d) the heterotrophic colony
count continues to exceed 200 000 colony
forming units per millilitre, the responsible
person—
(i) ensures the steps in subregulation (6)(d)
are repeated until the heterotrophic
colony count does not exceed 200 000
colony forming units per millilitre in
2 consecutive water samples taken
approximately one week apart; or
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(ii) closes the cooling tower system until
the problem has been remedied.
Penalty: 20 penalty units.
58 Legionella detected in cooling tower system
(1) Within 24 hours of receiving a report that
Legionella has been detected in a water sample
taken from a cooling tower system, the
responsible person must ensure that the following
procedure is implemented—
(a) the cooling tower system must be
disinfected; and
(b) the water treatment program, tower operation
and maintenance program of the system must
be reviewed; and
(c) any faults must be corrected and any changes
necessary to prevent a re-occurrence of those
faults must be implemented.
Penalty: 20 penalty units.
(2) Between 2 and 7 days after the disinfection
required by subregulation (1)(a) has been
completed, the responsible person must ensure
that a further sample of the recirculating water of
the system is taken and is delivered to a laboratory
for testing and reporting on for Legionella.
Penalty: 20 penalty units.
(3) Within 24 hours of receiving a report that
Legionella has been detected in a sample taken in
accordance with subregulation (2), the responsible
person must ensure that the water of the cooling
tower system is disinfected, cleaned and
re-disinfected.
Penalty: 20 penalty units.
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(4) Between 2 and 7 days after the disinfection
required by subregulation (3) has been completed,
the responsible person must ensure that a further
sample of the recirculating water of the system is
taken and is delivered to a laboratory for testing
and reporting on for Legionella.
Penalty: 20 penalty units.
(5) If, after following the procedure in subregulations
(1), (2), (3) and (4) Legionella is still detected, the
responsible person must—
(a) ensure that the steps in subregulations (3)
and (4) are repeated until Legionella is not
detected in 2 consecutive water samples
taken approximately one week apart; or
(b) close the cooling tower system until the
problem has been remedied.
Penalty: 20 penalty units.
(6) If, while following the procedure in this regulation
Legionella is detected in 3 consecutive water
samples taken from the same system, the
responsible person must notify the Secretary of
the detection of the presence of that organism—
(a) immediately by telephone; and
(b) by notice in writing within 3 days.
Penalty: 20 penalty units.
59 Cooling tower system suspected or implicated as the
source of infection
If the Secretary has informed the responsible
person that a cooling tower system is suspected or
implicated as the source of infection in a case or
an outbreak of Legionellosis, the responsible
person must ensure that—
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(a) a water sample from the cooling tower
system is promptly taken and delivered to a
laboratory for testing and reporting on for
Legionella; and
(b) the cooling tower system is decontaminated
in accordance with any reasonable directions
given to the responsible person by the
Secretary.
Penalty: 20 penalty units.
60 Records to be kept in respect of cooling tower
systems
(1) The responsible person must keep records in
respect of each cooling tower system that is
owned, managed or controlled by the responsible
person that records details of—
(a) all maintenance and corrective activities
undertaken in relation to the system during
the preceding 12 months; and
(b) all microbiological test results of samples
taken from the system during the preceding
12 months.
Penalty: 20 penalty units.
(2) The responsible person must produce the records
referred to in subregulation (1) for inspection on
the request of an authorised officer.
Penalty: 20 penalty units.
Division 2—Legionella risks in certain premises
61 Application of this Division
This Division applies to premises supplying aged
care, health services, health service
establishments, registered funded agencies,
correctional services and commercial vehicle
washes.
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62 Legionella risk management in certain places
The responsible person must take reasonable steps
to manage the risks of Legionella in any water
delivery system located at premises specified in
regulation 61.
Penalty: 20 penalty units.
63 Legionella detected in a water delivery system
Within 24 hours of receiving a report that
Legionella has been detected in a water sample
taken from a water delivery system located at any
premises specified in regulation 61, the
responsible person must ensure the water delivery
system is disinfected.
Penalty: 20 penalty units.
64 Water delivery system suspected or implicated as
the source of infection
If the Secretary has informed the responsible
person that the water delivery system is suspected
or implicated as the source of infection in a case
or an outbreak of Legionellosis, the responsible
person must ensure that—
(a) a water sample from the water delivery
system is promptly taken and delivered to a
laboratory for testing and reporting on for
Legionella; and
(b) the water delivery system is disinfected in
accordance with any reasonable directions
given to the responsible person by the
Secretary.
Penalty: 20 penalty units.
__________________
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Part 8—Pest Control
Public Health and Wellbeing Regulations 2009
S.R. No. 178/2009
43
PART 8—PEST CONTROL
65 Pest control licence fees
(1) Unless subregulation (3) applies, the licence fee
for licences issued under section 101(2) of the Act
is 45·2 fee units.
(2) Unless subregulation (3) applies, the licence fee
for licences issued under section 101(3) of the Act
is 15 fee units.
(3) The licence fee for a licence issued under section
101(2) of the Act to a person who—
(a) usually resides in another State or Territory
of the Commonwealth; and
(b) holds a valid licence as an authorised user of
pesticides in that State or Territory; and
(c) has applied for a licence to use pesticides in
Victoria that are the same or similar in all
respects to the pesticides that are authorised
for use under the licence—
is 4·9 fee units.
66 Qualifications for pest control licences
For the purposes of section 101(2)(b) of the Act,
the prescribed qualifications are set out in the
Table in Schedule 2.
67 Qualifications for certain existing pest control
licence holders
Despite regulation 66, an applicant for a licence
who—
(a) on 26 October 2002 held a licence under
section 108C(1) of the Health Act 1958 that
authorised the use of all the pesticides or the
classes of pesticides that are to be authorised
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for use under the licence being applied for;
and
(b) at the time of the application had been
employed in the pest control industry for at
least a total period of 2 years in the 5 year
period before the application—
is qualified to be granted that licence.
68 Courses of training for supervised pest control
licence holders
For the purposes of section 101(3)(b) of the Act,
the prescribed courses of training and units of
competency are set out in the table in Schedule 3.
69 Records
(1) For the purposes of section 108 of the Act, the
prescribed details are—
(a) the trade name of the pesticide;
(b) the batch number of the pesticide;
(c) specific precautions to be observed,
including the re-entry period;
(d) the date of the pesticide application;
(e) the start and finish times of the pesticide
application;
(f) the location of the pesticide application
(including street address, if applicable);
(g) a description of the treated areas;
(h) the pests treated;
(i) a description of the amount of pesticide
applied;
(j) the name and licence number of the person
applying the pesticide and, if applicable, the
name and licence number of the person
supervising the application;
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(k) the name and address of the person for
whom the work was carried out;
(l) if applied outdoors, the ambient temperature,
wind direction and speed at the time of
application;
(m) the method of application;
Example
Spray or bait.
(n) the trading name, address and phone number
of the business employing, engaging or
owned by the person applying the pesticide;
(o) the signature of the person completing the
record.
(2) For the purpose of section 108 of the Act, the
prescribed period is 3 years.
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PART 9—MANAGEMENT AND CONTROL OF INFECTIOUS
DISEASES, MICRO-ORGANISMS AND MEDICAL
CONDITIONS
Division 1—Notifications
70 Notifiable conditions and micro-organisms
(1) For the purposes of the definition of notifiable
condition in section 3(1) of the Act, the infectious
diseases and medical conditions listed in
Schedule 4 are prescribed as notifiable conditions.
(2) For the purposes of the definition of notifiable
micro-organism in section 3(1) of the Act, the
micro-organisms listed in Schedule 5 are
prescribed as notifiable micro-organisms.
71 Notification of notifiable conditions by medical
practitioners
For the purposes of section 127(2)(a) of the Act,
the prescribed notification details and prescribed
times are specified in Schedule 6 in respect of
each group of notifiable conditions.
72 Notification of notifiable conditions by pathology
services
(1) For the purposes of section 128(2)(a) of the Act, if
the condition is listed in Group A in Schedule 4,
the person in charge of the pathology service must
notify the Secretary of the notification details
prescribed by subregulation (3) immediately by
telephone.
(2) For the purposes of section 128(2)(a) of the Act,
the person in charge of the pathology service must
notify the Secretary in writing of the notification
details prescribed by subregulation (3) within
5 days of obtaining the result of the test indicating
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that the person has or may have any notifiable
condition.
(3) The prescribed notification details are—
(a) if the notifiable condition is in Group A or
Group B of Schedule 4, the family name and
given name of the person from whom the
sample was taken;
(b) if the notifiable condition is in Group C or
Group D of Schedule 4, the patient code,
being the first two letters of the family name
and the first two letters of the given name;
(c) the sex of the person;
(d) the date of birth of the person;
(e) if the notifiable condition is in Group A or
Group B of Schedule 4, the address of that
person;
(f) if the notifiable condition is in Group C or
Group D of Schedule 4, the residential post
code number of that person;
(g) the laboratory finding;
(h) the date the sample was taken;
(i) the name, address and telephone number of
the medical practitioner who requested the
test;
(j) if the notifiable condition is Blood lead
greater than 10μg/dL, whether or not the test
was requested as part of routine biological
monitoring as prescribed by sections 4.4.20,
4.4.21 or 4.4.22 of the Occupational Health
and Safety Regulations 2007, if known.
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73 Notification of micro-organisms—laboratories and
food premises
For the purposes of sections 130(2) and 130(5) of
the Act, the prescribed manner of notification and
the prescribed notification details are specified in
Schedule 5.
Division 2—Notification and directions
74 Secretary may notify Council
The Secretary may notify a Council of a
municipal district that may be affected by a
notifiable condition referred to in a notice
received by the Secretary under Division 3 of Part
8 of the Act.
75 Secretary may give written directions
(1) The Secretary may give a written direction to an
authorised officer appointed by a Council if in the
opinion of the Secretary it is reasonably necessary
to do so for the purpose of investigating any
notifiable condition notified under Division 3 of
Part 8 of the Act or limiting the spread of any case
of infectious disease notified under Division 3 of
Part 8 of the Act.
(2) An authorised officer appointed by a Council to
whom a written direction is given must comply
with the direction within the time specified in the
direction.
76 Powers of authorised officer
(1) An authorised officer appointed by a Council may
give written directions to any person if in the
opinion of the authorised officer it is reasonably
necessary to do so for the purpose of
implementing directions given by the Secretary
under regulation 75.
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(2) A person to whom a written direction is given
must comply with the direction within the time
specified in the direction.
Penalty: 20 penalty units.
Division 3—HIV tests
77 Information to be given to a person requesting a test
for HIV
For the purposes of section 131(1) of the Act,
before authorising a test for HIV, the registered
medical practitioner requesting the test must be
satisfied that the person has been given
information about the medical and psychosocial
consequences of the test and the meaning of
possible results of the test.
78 Positive test results
For the purposes of section 132 of the Act—
(a) the prescribed classes of persons are—
(i) persons who, after 1 January 2010,
successfully complete or demonstrate
proficiency in the units of competency
approved by the Secretary and
published in the Government Gazette
for the purpose of this regulation;
(ii) persons who, before 1 January 2010,
successfully completed a course
approved by the Secretary or were
recognised as having demonstrated
proficiency in pre-test and post-test
counselling in relation to the Human
Immunodeficiency Virus Antibody test;
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(b) the prescribed information is—
(i) information about the medical and
psychosocial consequences of the test
results; and
(ii) ways to prevent the transmission of the
virus to others;
(c) the prescribed information must be
provided—
(i) by a registered medical practitioner or a
person fulfilling the requirements of
paragraph (a); and
(ii) in the presence of the person upon
whom the test was conducted.
79 Classes of persons who may provide counselling
about the risk of transmission
For the purposes of section 134(1)(b) of the Act,
the prescribed classes of persons are—
(a) registered medical practitioners;
(b) persons who, after 1 January 2010,
successfully complete or demonstrate
proficiency in the units of competency
approved by the Secretary and published in
the Government Gazette for the purpose of
this regulation;
(c) persons who, before 1 January 2010,
successfully completed a course approved by
the Secretary or were recognised as having
demonstrated proficiency in pre-test and
post-test counselling in relation to the
Human Immunodeficiency Virus Antibody
test.
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Division 4—Immunisation
80 Definition of immunised
For the purposes of sections 3 and 238(1)(a) of the
Act, immunised in relation to a vaccine-
preventable disease, means the child has been
vaccinated for that vaccine-preventable disease.
81 Vaccine-preventable diseases
For the purposes of Division 7 of Part 8 of the
Act, the following vaccine-preventable diseases
are prescribed—
(a) Diphtheria;
(b) Tetanus;
(c) Pertussis (Whooping Cough);
(d) Poliomyelitis;
(e) Haemophilus influenzae type b;
(f) Hepatitis B;
(g) Pneumococcal;
(h) Rotavirus;
(i) Measles;
(j) Mumps;
(k) Rubella;
(l) Meningococcal C;
(m) Varicella.
82 Retention of immunisation status certificates at
primary schools
The person in charge of a primary school must
keep a record of the information in each
immunisation status certificate given for the
period that the child in respect of whom the
certificate was issued attended the school.
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83 Access to immunisation status certificates
A person in charge of a primary school must allow
authorised officers to access immunisation status
certificates at any reasonable time.
84 Provision of information
(1) The parent or guardian of a child attending a
primary school or children's services centre must
inform the person in charge of the school or centre
as soon as practicable if—
(a) the child is infected with a condition that is
specified as excludable in column 2 of the
Table in Schedule 7; or
(b) the child has been in contact with a person
infected with a condition for which the
exclusion of contacts is specified in
column 3 of the Table in Schedule 7.
(2) If the person in charge of a primary school or
children's services centre believes, on reasonable
grounds, that a child enrolled at the primary
school or children's services centre is suffering
from—
(a) Pertussis; or
(b) Poliomyelitis; or
(c) Measles; or
(d) Mumps; or
(e) Rubella; or
(f) Meningoccal C—
he or she must, within 24 hours of reaching that
belief, inform the parent or guardian of the child
and the Secretary.
Penalty: 1 penalty unit.
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85 Primary school or children's services centre
exclusion
(1) A person in charge of a primary school or
children's services centre must not allow a child to
attend the primary school or children's services
centre for the period or in the circumstances—
(a) specified in column 2 of the Table in
Schedule 7 if the person in charge has been
informed that the child is infected with an
infectious disease listed in column 1 of the
Table in Schedule 7; or
(b) specified in column 3 of the Table in
Schedule 7 if the person in charge has been
informed that the child has been in contact
with a person who is infected with an
infectious disease listed in column 1 of the
Table in Schedule 7.
Penalty: 20 penalty units.
(2) The person in charge of a primary school or
children's services centre, when directed to do so
by the Secretary, must ensure that a child enrolled
at the primary school or children's services centre
who is not immunised against a vaccine
preventable disease specified by the Secretary in
that direction, does not attend the school or centre
until the Secretary directs that such attendance can
be resumed.
Penalty: 20 penalty units.
Division 5—Tissue donations
86 Prescribed period
(1) For the purposes of section 152(3) of the Act and
Table 2 Item 1(c)(ii) of the Schedule to the Act,
the prescribed period is 6 months.
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(2) For the purposes of section 152(3) of the Act and
Table 2 Item 1(c)(iv) of the Schedule to the Act,
the prescribed quarantine period is 6 months.
Division 6—Information to sex workers and clients
87 Information to sex workers and clients
For the purposes of section 162(4) of the Act, an
escort agency proprietor must forward relevant
information about the transmission of sexually
transmitted infections if requested to do so by a
sex worker or client.
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PART 10—INFRINGEMENTS
88 Infringements
(1) For the purpose of section 209(5) of the Act, the
offences set out in column 2 of the Table in
Schedule 8 are prescribed offences for which
infringement notices may be served.
(2) For the purposes of section 209(4) of the Act, the
penalty prescribed in respect of each offence is the
amount specified in column 4 of the Table in
Schedule 8 opposite the prescribed offence set out
in Column 2 of that Table.
(3) A description of an offence set out in Column 3 of
the Table in Schedule 8 opposite an infringement
offence set out in Column 2 of that Table is
provided for convenience of reference only and is
not to be taken to affect the nature or elements of
the offence to which the description refers or the
operation of these Regulations.
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SCHEDULES
SCHEDULE 1
PRESCRIBED CONSULTATIVE COUNCILS
Consultative Council on Anaesthetic Mortality and Morbidity
Victorian Quality Assurance Committee
Victorian Surgical Consultative Council
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SCHEDULE 2
APPROVED COURSES AND QUALIFICATIONS
A licence that only
authorises the use of— Qualification
Pesticides (except
fumigants) that have
been formulated for the
control of any pest, to
control any pest except
a pest animal.
Completion of at least one of—
Victoria
Certificate in Pest Control (conducted by
Commercial Pest Training Services and
TAFE Colleges in Victoria).
Statement of Attainment in Units 5, 6 and 18
of Certificate II in Asset Maintenance (Pest
Management—Technical) issued by a
registered education and training organisation.
Statement of Attainment in Units 5, 6 and 18
of Certificate III in Asset Maintenance (Pest
Management—Technical) issued by a
registered education and training organisation.
Certificate for recognition of current
competencies or prior learning in pest control
issued by a registered education and training
organisation.
Pest Control Correspondence Course
(conducted by Australian Environmental Pest
Managers Association).
South Australia
South Australia Pest Control Certificate
Course (conducted by Gilles Plains College of
TAFE).
New South Wales
New South Wales Urban Pest Control Course
(conducted by New South Wales Department
of TAFE at Sydney, Ryde and Werrington
Colleges).
New South Wales Urban Pest Control
Correspondence Course (conducted by New
South Wales Department of TAFE, Open
Training and Education Network).
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A licence that only
authorises the use of— Qualification
Western Australia
Western Australia Pesticide Safety, Pest
Control Principles, and Pest Control Domestic
and Commercial Courses (conducted by
Bentley College of TAFE and Western
Australia Department of TAFE Division of
External Studies).
Northern Territory
Northern Territory Pest Control Operators
Course (conducted by Northern Territory
Institute of TAFE External Studies Centre)
plus final unit of Victorian Certificate Course
in Pest Control.
Queensland
Queensland Pest Control Course (conducted
by Queensland Distance Education Centre)
plus final unit of Victorian Certificate Course
in Pest Control.
Urban Pest Control Course (conducted by
Ithaca College of TAFE, Grovely Campus).
Pesticides—
(i) that have been
formulated for the
control of any pest
animal; and
(ii) to protect an area
or place in a
building used for
commercial
purposes or
domestic premises
or privately owned
land adjacent to
domestic premises.
Completion of at least one of—
Victoria
Pest Animal Management Course (conducted
by Victorian College of Agriculture and
Horticulture and Victorian Colleges of
TAFE).
Statement of Attainment in the Pest Animal
Management Unit of the Diploma of Applied
Science (Natural Resource Management)
issued by a registered education and training
organisation.
Statement of Attainment in Units RTD2101A,
RTD2126A, RTD4403A and RTE3406A of
Certificate III in Conservation and Land
Management issued by a registered education
and training organisation.
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A licence that only
authorises the use of— Qualification
Certificate for recognition of current
competencies or prior learning in pest animal
control issued by a registered education and
training organisation.
Pesticides that are in
the form of fumigants.
Completion of at least one of—
Victoria
Methyl Bromide Fumigation Course
(conducted by Victorian College of
Agriculture and Horticulture and University
of Melbourne).
Statement of Attainment in Unit 6 of
Certificate II and Unit 11 of Certificate III in
Asset Maintenance (Pest Management—
Technical) issued by a registered education
and training organisation.
Statement of Attainment in Unit 11 of
Certificate III in Asset Maintenance (Pest
Management—Technical) issued by a
registered education and training organisation
on or after 1 January 2005.
Certificate for recognition of current
competencies or prior learning in the use of
fumigants in pest control issued by a
registered education and training organisation.
Phosphine Fumigation Course conducted by
The Grain Elevators Board, VicGrain or
GrainCorp.
New South Wales
New South Wales Fumigation Course
(conducted by New South Wales WorkCover
Authority).
South Australia
South Australia Fumigation Course
(conducted by Gilles Plains College of
TAFE).
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SCHEDULE 3
COURSES OF TRAINING AND UNITS OF COMPETENCY
A licence that only
authorises the use of— Course of training Units of competency
Pesticides (except
fumigants) that have
been formulated for the
control of any pest, to
control any pest except
a pest animal.
Certificate III in
Asset Maintenance
(Pest Management—
Technical)
Units 5, 6 and 18 of
Certificate III in Asset
Maintenance (Pest
Management––
Technical)
Pesticides—
(i) that have been
formulated for the
control of any pest
animal; and
(ii) to protect an area
or place in a
building used for
commercial
purposes or
domestic premises
or privately owned
land adjacent to
domestic premises.
Certificate III in
Conservation and
Land Management;
or
Pest Animal
Management Course
Units RTD2101A,
RTD2126A,
RTD4403A and
RTE3406A of
Certificate III in
Conservation and Land
Management; or
Units of competency
related to pest animal
management course
Pesticides that are in
the form of fumigants.
Certificate III in
Asset Maintenance
(Pest Management—
Technical)
Unit 11 of
Certificate III in Asset
Maintenance (Pest
Management––
Technical)
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SCHEDULE 4
NOTIFIABLE CONDITIONS
Group A
Anthrax
Botulism
Cholera
Chikungunya virus infection
Diphtheria
Food-borne and water-borne illness (two or more related cases)
Haemolytic Uraemic Syndrome (HUS)
Japanese encephalitis
Legionellosis
Measles
Murray Valley encephalitis virus infection
Haemophilus influenzae, type B (meningitis, epiglottitis, other
invasive infections)
Hepatitis A
Meningococcal infection (invasive)
Paratyphoid
Poliomyelitis
Plague
Rabies
Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS)
Smallpox
Tularaemia
Typhoid
Viral haemorrhagic fevers
Yellow fever
Group B
Barmah Forest virus infection
Arbovirus infections—other arbovirus infections
Blood lead greater than 10μg/dL
Brucellosis
Campylobacter infection
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Group B (continued)
Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD)
Cryptosporidiosis
Dengue virus infection
Hepatitis B (newly acquired)
Hepatitis B (unspecified)
Hepatitis C (newly acquired)
Hepatitis C (unspecified)
Hepatitis D
Hepatitis E
Hepatitis viral (not further specified)
Herpes zoster
Influenza (laboratory confirmed)
Kunjin virus infection
Leprosy
Leptospirosis
Listeriosis
Lyssavirus—Australian Bat lyssavirus
Lyssavirus—other (specify)
Malaria
Mumps
Mycobacterium ulcerans
Pneumococcal infection (invasive)
Psittacosis (ornithosis)
Pertussis
Q Fever
Ross River virus infection
Rubella
Congenital Rubella
Salmonellosis
Shiga toxin and Verotoxin producing Escherichia coli
(STEC/VTEC)
Shigellosis
Tetanus
Tuberculosis
variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (vCJD)
Varicella
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Group C
Chlamydia trachomatis infection
Donovanosis
Gonococcal infection
Syphilis (less than 2 years duration)
Syphilis (2 years or more duration or unspecified)
Congenital syphilis
Group D
Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS)
Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) Infection
__________________
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SCHEDULE 5
MICRO-ORGANISMS—ISOLATED OR DETECTED IN FOOD
OR DRINKING WATER SUPPLIES
Micro-organisms
Campylobacter spp
Cryptosporidium spp
Cyclospora spp
Giardia cysts
Hepatitis A
Listeria monocytogenes
Norovirus
Salmonella spp
Verotoxin producing Escherichia coli (VTEC)
Vibrio spp
Timing of notice
Immediate notification by telephone followed by notice in
writing within 5 days.
Manner of notice
The notice must specify—
Micro-organism isolated or detected:
Date of isolation or detection:
Source: food or water:
Type: batch identification (if appropriate):
Name and contact number of notifying laboratory:
__________________
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SCHEDULE 6
NOTIFICATION BY MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS
FORM 1
FOR GROUP A AND GROUP B NOTIFIABLE CONDITIONS—
STRICTLY CONFIDENTIAL
1. Diagnosis
2. Identification
Family Name:
Given Name:
Date of birth:
Sex:
Indigenous status:
Country of birth:
If born overseas, year of arrival in Australia:
Alive/deceased:
3. Other characteristics
Residential Address:
Residential Postcode:
Occupation:
School or childcare attended:
Clinical Comments:
Date of Onset of Illness:
Risk factors:
Suspected mode of transmission:
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4. Notifying Doctor
Name:
Address:
Phone Number:
Signature:
Date of report:
5. Timing of notice
Group A
Immediate notification by telephone of an initial diagnosis—whether
presumptive or confirmed. Followed by written notification with details
of the data elements listed above, within 5 days of the initial diagnosis.
Group B
Written notification with details of the data elements listed above,
within 5 days of the initial diagnosis.
__________________
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FORM 2
FOR GROUP C NOTIFIABLE CONDITIONS—STRICTLY
CONFIDENTIAL
1. Diagnosis
2. Identification
Name Code (First two letters of family name, First two letters of given
name):
Date of birth:
Sex:
Indigenous status:
Country of birth:
If born overseas, year of arrival in Australia:
Alive/deceased:
3. Other characteristics
Residential Postcode:
Clinical Comments:
Risk factors:
Suspected mode of transmission:
Date of Onset of Illness:
4. Notifying Doctor
Name:
Address:
Phone Number:
Signature:
Date of report:
5. Timing of notice
Written notification with details of the data elements listed above,
within 5 days of the initial diagnosis.
__________________
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FORM 3
FOR GROUP D NOTIFICATION FOR HIV—STRICTLY
CONFIDENTIAL
1. Identification
Name Code (First two letters of family name, First two letters of given
name):
Date of birth:
Sex:
2. Other characteristics
Country of birth:
Indigenous status:
If born overseas, year of arrival in Australia:
Language other than English spoken at home:
Residential postcode:
Date of onset of illness:
3. Notifying doctor
Name:
Address:
Hospital name (if appropriate):
Phone number:
Signature:
Date of notification:
4. Reason for testing
Exposure risk (see section 6):
Investigation of clinical symptoms:
Screening—
Blood, organ or semen donor:
Immigration:
Antenatal:
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Confirmation of HIV positive status:
Other:
5. Diagnosis
Date of first diagnosis of HIV infection:
State/Territory of first diagnosis of HIV infection:
CD4+ count or viral load at first diagnosis of HIV infection or both:
History of HIV seroconversion illness:
Date of HIV seroconversion illness:
Has the person had a previous HIV test:
Date of last test:
Result of last HIV test:
Source of information on last test, patient, doctor or laboratory:
6. Exposure category
Note: More than one exposure category may be notified.
Sexual exposure
Note: At least one of the following must be notified.
Sexual contact only with person of same sex:
Sexual contact with both sexes (if female see section 6a):
Sexual contact only with person of opposite sex (see section 6a):
Sexual contact with a person from another country (write country):
No sexual contact:
Sexual exposure not known:
Vertical exposure
Mother with/at risk of HIV infection:
Blood exposure
Injecting drug use (detail):
Recipient of blood, blood products or tissue (detail):
Haemophilia/coagulation disorder (detail):
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6a. Sexual contact
Note: At least one of the following must be answered if MALE reports
sexual contact with person of opposite sex or if FEMALE
reports sexual contact with either same or OPPOSITE sex.
Sex with bisexual male (women only):
Sex with injecting drug user:
Sex with person from another country (write country):
Sex with a person who received blood, blood products or tissue:
Sex with a person with haemophilia/ coagulation disorder:
Sex with person with HIV infection whose exposure is other than those
above (specify):
Heterosexual contact not further specified:
7. Donation of blood or other bodily fluid or tissue prior to HIV
diagnosis
Note: If this item is applicable, specify type of donation, date and place
of donation.
8. Timing of Notice
Written notification with details of the data elements listed in items 1
to 7, within 5 days of the initial diagnosis.
__________________
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FORM 4
FOR GROUP D NOTIFICATION FOR AIDS—STRICTLY
CONFIDENTIAL
1. Identification
Name Code (First two letters of family name, First two letters of given
name):
Date of birth:
Sex:
2. Other characteristics
Country of birth:
Indigenous status:
Residential postcode:
If born overseas, year of arrival into Australia:
Language other than English spoken at home:
Current state of person—
If person is alive, date of most recent contact:
If person has died, date of death:
3. Notifying doctor
Name:
Address:
Hospital name (if appropriate):
Phone number:
Signature:
Date of notification:
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4. Diagnosis
Date of AIDS diagnosis:
Has the person previously been diagnosed with AIDS elsewhere?
Yes/No/Unknown
If yes and diagnosis was in another State/Territory, specify
State/Territory and date:
If yes and diagnosis was overseas, specify country and date:
5. Laboratory tests
Date of first diagnosis of HIV infection:
CD4+ count or viral load at AIDS diagnosis or both:
Date of specimen collection for CD4+ count analysis:
Note: The CD4+ count and viral load results need to be forwarded as
part of your notification when the count and results are available.
6. Anti-retroviral therapy
Has the person been treated with anti-retroviral therapy?
If yes, specify month/year when started:
7. Diseases indicative of AIDS at diagnosis
Note: At least one of the following must be notified. State whether
definite or presumptive.
Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia:
Oesophageal candidiasis:
Kaposi's sarcoma (specify site):
Herpes simplex virus of >1 month duration (specify site):
Cryptococcosis (specify site):
Cryptosporidiosis (diarrhoea >1 month):
Toxoplasmosis (specify site):
Cytomegalovirus (specify site):
Atypical Mycobacteriosis (specify type):
Pulmonary tuberculosis:
Extrapulmonary tuberculosis:
Lymphoma:
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Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma, primary of brain/CNS:
Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma, other site (specify type):
HIV encephalopathy (includes AIDS Dementia Complex):
HIV wasting syndrome:
Invasive cervical cancer:
Recurrent pneumonia:
Other (specify):
8. Exposure category
Note: More than one exposure category may be notified.
Person was interviewed in relation to exposure:
*Not at all (provide reasons):
*To a certain extent (provide the following details):
*In depth (provide the following details):
*Delete if inapplicable
Sexual exposure
Note: At least one of the following must be notified.
Sexual contact only with person of same sex:
Sexual contact with both sexes (if female see section 8a):
Sexual contact only with person of opposite sex (see section 8a):
Sexual contact with a person from another country (write country):
No sexual contact:
Sexual exposure not known:
Vertical exposure
Mother with/at risk of HIV infection:
Blood exposure
Injecting drug use (detail):
Recipient of blood, blood products or tissue (detail):
Haemophilia/coagulation disorder (detail):
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Other exposure
Exposures other than those above apply (provide details):
Exposure could not be established (detail):
8a. Sexual contact
Note: At least one of the following must be answered if MALE reports
sexual contact with person of opposite sex or if FEMALE
reports sexual contact with either same or OPPOSITE sex.
Sex with bisexual male (women only):
Sex with injecting drug user:
Sex with person from another country (write country):
Sex with a person who received blood, blood products or tissue:
Sex with a person with haemophilia/coagulation disorder:
Sex with person with HIV infection whose exposure is other than those
above (specify):
Sex with person with HIV infection whose exposure could not be
established:
Heterosexual contact not further specified:
9. Timing of Notice
Written notification with details of the data elements listed in items 1
to 8a, within 5 days of the initial diagnosis.
__________________
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SCHEDULE 7
MINIMUM PERIOD OF EXCLUSION FROM PRIMARY
SCHOOLS AND CHILDREN'S SERVICES CENTRES FOR
INFECTIOUS DISEASES CASES AND CONTACTS
In this Schedule, medical certificate means a certificate of a registered
medical practitioner.
Column 1
Conditions
Column 2
Exclusion of cases
Column 3
Exclusion of Contacts
Amoebiasis
(Entamoeba
histolytica)
Exclude until there has
not been a loose bowel
motion for 24 hours
Not excluded
Campylobacter Exclude until there has
not been a loose bowel
motion for 24 hours
Not excluded
Chickenpox Exclude until all blisters
have dried. This is
usually at least 5 days
after the rash appears in
unimmunised children,
but may be less in
previously immunised
children
Any child with an
immune deficiency
(for example,
leukaemia) or
receiving
chemotherapy should
be excluded for their
own protection.
Otherwise not
excluded
Conjunctivitis Exclude until discharge
from eyes has ceased
Not excluded
Diarrhoea Exclude until there has
not been a loose bowel
motion for 24 hours
Not excluded
Diphtheria Exclude until medical
certificate of recovery is
received following at
least two negative throat
swabs, the first not less
than 24 hours after
finishing a course of
antibiotics and the other
48 hours later
Exclude
family/household
contacts until cleared
to return by the
Secretary
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Column 1
Conditions
Column 2
Exclusion of cases
Column 3
Exclusion of Contacts
Hand, Foot and
Mouth disease
Exclude until all blisters
have dried
Not excluded
Haemophilus
influenzae type b
(Hib)
Exclude until at least
4 days of appropriate
antibiotic treatment has
been completed
Not excluded
Hepatitis A Exclude until a medical
certificate of recovery is
received, but not before
7 days after the onset of
jaundice or illness
Not excluded
Hepatitis B Exclusion is not
necessary
Not excluded
Hepatitis C Exclusion is not
necessary
Not excluded
Herpes (cold sores) Young children unable
to comply with good
hygiene practices should
be excluded while the
lesion is weeping.
Lesions to be covered by
dressing, where possible
Not excluded
Human immuno-
deficiency virus
infection (HIV/AIDS
virus)
Exclusion is not
necessary
Not excluded
Impetigo Exclude until
appropriate treatment
has commenced. Sores
on exposed surfaces
must be covered with a
watertight dressing
Not excluded
Influenza and
influenza like
illnesses
Exclude until well Not excluded unless
considered necessary
by the Secretary
Leprosy Exclude until approval
to return has been given
by the Secretary
Not excluded
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Column 1
Conditions
Column 2
Exclusion of cases
Column 3
Exclusion of Contacts
Measles Exclude for at least
4 days after onset of
rash
Immunised contacts
not excluded.
Unimmunised
contacts should be
excluded until 14 days
after the first day of
appearance of rash
in the last case.
If unimmunised
contacts are
vaccinated within
72 hours of their first
contact with the first
case, or received
NHIG within
144 hours of
exposure, they may
return to the facility
Meningitis (bacteria
—other than
meningococcal
meningitis)
Exclude until well Not excluded
Meningococcal
infection
Exclude until adequate
carrier eradication
therapy has been
completed
Not excluded if
receiving carrier
eradication therapy
Mumps Exclude for 9 days or
until swelling goes down
(whichever is sooner)
Not excluded
Pertussis
(Whooping cough)
Exclude the child for
21 days after the onset
of cough or until they
have completed 5 days
of a course of antibiotic
treatment
Contacts aged less
than 7 years in the
same room as the case
who have not received
three effective doses
of pertussis vaccine
should be excluded
for 14 days after the
last exposure to the
infectious case, or
until they have taken
5 days of a course of
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Column 1
Conditions
Column 2
Exclusion of cases
Column 3
Exclusion of Contacts
effective antibiotic
treatment
Poliomyelitis Exclude for at least
14 days from onset.
Re-admit after receiving
medical certificate of
recovery
Not excluded
Ringworm, scabies,
pediculosis (head
lice)
Exclude until the day
after appropriate
treatment has
commenced
Not excluded
Rubella
(German measles)
Exclude until fully
recovered or for at least
four days after the onset
of rash
Not excluded
Salmonella, Shigella Exclude until there has
not been a loose bowel
motion for 24 hours
Not excluded
Severe Acute
Respiratory
Syndrome (SARS)
Exclude until medical
certificate of recovery is
produced
Not excluded unless
considered necessary
by the Secretary
Streptococcal
infection
(including scarlet
fever)
Exclude until the child
has received antibiotic
treatment for at least
24 hours and the child
feels well
Not excluded
Tuberculosis Exclude until receipt of
a medical certificate
from the treating
physician stating that the
child is not considered to
be infectious
Not excluded
Typhoid fever
(including
paratyphoid fever)
Exclude until approval
to return has been given
by the Secretary
Not excluded unless
considered necessary
by the Secretary
Verotoxin producing
Escherichia coli
(VTEC)
Exclude if required by
the Secretary and only
for the period specified
by the Secretary
Not excluded
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Column 1
Conditions
Column 2
Exclusion of cases
Column 3
Exclusion of Contacts
Worms
(Intestinal)
Exclude until there has
not been a loose bowel
motion for 24 hours
Not excluded
__________________
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SCHEDULE 8
INFRINGEMENTS
A. Public Health and Wellbeing Regulations 2009
Column 1
Reference
Column 2
Offence
Column 3
Short description of Offence
Column 4
Penalty
1 17(2) Proprietor of prescribed
accommodation permits a room to be
used as bedroom if it has a floor area
of less than 7⋅5 square meters
4
2 20(1) Proprietor of prescribed
accommodation fails to provide a
continuous and adequate supply of
water to toilet, bathing, kitchen,
laundry and drinking water facilities
4
3 25 Proprietor of prescribed
accommodation fails to supply one
toilet, bath or shower and wash basin
for every 10 persons or fraction of
that number of persons occupying the
accommodation
4
4 27 Proprietor of prescribed
accommodation states or causes to be
stated in an advertising, notice or sign
that the premises is registered or
approved for any class of
accommodation other than that set
out in the certificate of registration
4
5 56(2) Failure of responsible person to
ensure that at least once each month a
sample of the recirculating water of
the cooling tower system is taken and
delivered to a laboratory for testing
and reporting on for heterotrophic
colony count
4
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Column 1
Reference
Column 2
Offence
Column 3
Short description of Offence
Column 4
Penalty
6 56(3) Failure of responsible person to
ensure that at least once every three
months a sample of the recirculating
water of the cooling tower system is
taken and delivered to a laboratory
for testing and reporting for
Legionella
4
B. Public Health and Wellbeing Act 2008
Column 1
Reference
Column 2
Offence
Column 3
Short description of Offence
Column 4
Penalty
7 67 Failure of a natural person to register
prescribed accommodation with
municipal council
4
8 67 Failure of a body corporate to register
prescribed accommodation with
municipal council
10
9 69 Failure of a natural person to register
certain businesses that are not
prescribed to be exempt
12
10 69 Failure of a body corporate to register
certain businesses that are not
prescribed to be exempt
10
11 80 Failure of a natural person to register
cooling tower system in operation
10
12 80 Failure of a body corporate to register
cooling tower system in operation
24
13 87(2) Failure of a natural person to notify
secretary of change of ownership,
contact details or address of cooling
tower system
2
14 87(2) Failure of a body corporate to notify
secretary of change of ownership,
contact details or address of cooling
tower system
10
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Column 1
Reference
Column 2
Offence
Column 3
Short description of Offence
Column 4
Penalty
15 95 Risk management audit conducted by
person who is not an approved auditor
4
16 99 Unlicensed use of pesticide in the
course of business of pest control
operator
4
17 108 Failure of a natural person to keep
prescribed pest control records
2
18 108 Failure of a body corporate to keep
prescribed pest control records
4
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ENDNOTES
Fee Units
These Regulations provide for fees by reference to fee units within the
meaning of the Monetary Units Act 2004.
The amount of the fee is to be calculated, in accordance with section 7 of that
Act, by multiplying the number of fee units applicable by the value of a fee
unit.
The value of a fee unit for the financial year commencing 1 July 2009 is
$11.69. The amount of the calculated fee may be rounded to the nearest
10 cents.
The value of a fee unit for future financial years is to be fixed by the
Treasurer under section 5 of the Monetary Units Act 2004. The value of a
fee unit for a financial year must be published in the Government Gazette and
a Victorian newspaper before 1 June in the preceding financial year.
Penalty Units
These Regulations provide for penalties by reference to penalty units within
the meaning of section 110 of the Sentencing Act 1991. The amount of the
penalty is to be calculated, in accordance with section 7 of the Monetary
Units Act 2004, by multiplying the number of penalty units applicable by the
value of a penalty unit.
The value of a penalty unit for the financial year commencing 1 July 2009 is
$116.82.
The amount of the calculated penalty may be rounded to the nearest dollar.
The value of a penalty unit for future financial years is to be fixed by the
Treasurer under section 5 of the Monetary Units Act 2004. The value of a
penalty unit for a financial year must be published in the Government Gazette
and a Victorian newspaper before 1 June in the preceding financial year.
Endnotes
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